Medieval Methods for Making Fabric From Wool

In the Middle Ages, wool was turned into cloth in the thriving wool production trade, in home-based cottage industry, and in private households for family use. Methods could vary depending on the wherewithal of the producer, but the basic processes of spinning, weaving, and finishing cloth were essentially the same. Wool is usually sheared from sheep all at once, resulting in a large fleece. Occasionally, the skin of a slaughtered sheep was utilized for its wool; but the product obtained, which was called pulled wool, was an inferior grade to that shorn from live sheep. If the wool was intended for trade (as opposed to local use), it was bound up with similar fleeces and sold or traded off until it reached its final destination in a cloth-manufacturing town. It was there that processing began. Sorting The first thing done to a fleece was to separate its wool into its various grades by coarseness because different types of wool were destined for different end products and required specialized methods of processing. Also, some types of wool had specific uses in the manufacturing process itself. The wool in the outer layer of fleece was ordinarily longer, thicker and coarser than the wool from the inner layers. These fibers would be spun into worsted yarn. The inner layers had softer wool of varying lengths that would be spun into woolen yarn. Shorter fibers would be further sorted by grade into heavier and finer wools; the heavier ones would be used to make thicker yarn for the warp threads in the loom, and the lighter ones would be used for the wefts. Cleansing Next, the wool was washed; soap and water would usually do for worsteds. For the fibers that would be used to make woolens, the cleansing process was particularly stringent and could include hot alkaline water, lye, and even stale urine. The aim was to remove the wool grease (from which lanolin is extracted) and other oils and greases as well as dirt and foreign matter. The use of urine was frowned upon and even outlawed at various points in the Middle Ages, but it was still common in home industries throughout the era. Following cleansing, the wools were rinsed several times. Beating After rinsing, the wools were set out in the sun on wooden slats to dry and were beaten, or broken, with sticks. Willow branches were often used, and thus the process was called willeying in England, brisage de laines in France and wullebreken in Flanders. Beating the wool helped remove any remaining foreign matter, and it separated entangled or matted fibers. Preliminary Dyeing Sometimes, dye would be applied to fiber before it was used in manufacturing. If so, this is the point at which the dyeing would occur. It was fairly common to soak fibers in a preliminary dye with the expectation that the color would combine with a different shade in a later dye bath. Fabric that was dyed at this stage was known as dyed-in-the-wool. Dyes usually required a mordant to keep the color from fading, and mordants often left a crystalline residue that made working with fibers extremely difficult. Therefore, the most common dye used in this early stage was woad, which did not require a mordant. Woad was a blue dye made from an herb indigenous to Europe, and it took about three days to use it to dye fiber and make the color fast. In later medieval Europe, such a large percentage of wool cloths were dyed with woad that cloth workers were often known as blue nails.1 Greasing Before the wools could be subjected to the harsh processing treatment that lay ahead, they would be greased with butter or olive oil to protect them. Those who produced their own cloth at home were likely to skip the more rigorous cleansing, allowing some of the natural lanolin to remain as a lubricant instead of adding grease. Although this step was done primarily to the fibers intended for woolen yarn, there is evidence that the longer, thicker fibers used to make worsteds were also lightly greased. Combing The next step in preparing wool for spinning varied depending on the type of wool, the instruments available and, oddly enough, whether certain tools had been outlawed. For worsted yarn, simple wool combs were used to separate and straighten the fibers. The teeth of the combs might be wooden or, as the Middle Ages progressed, iron. A pair of combs was used, and the wool would be transferred from one comb to the other and back again until it had been straightened and aligned. Combs were usually constructed with several rows of teeth and had a handle, which made them look a little like a modern-day dog brush. Combs were also used for woolen fibers, but in the central Middle Ages cards were introduced. These were flat boards with many rows of short, sharp metal hooks. By placing a handful of wool on one card and combing it until it had been transferred to the other, and then repeating the process several times, a light, airy fiber would result. Carding separated wools more effectively than combing, and it did so without losing the shorter fibers. It was also a good way to blend together different types of wool. For reasons that remain unclear, cards were outlawed in portions of Europe for several centuries. John H. Munroe posits that the reasoning behind the ban could be a fear that the sharp metal hooks would damage the wool, or that carding made it too easy to fraudulently blend inferior wools into superior ones. Instead of carding or combing, some woolens were subjected to a process known as bowing. The bow was an arched wooden frame, the two ends of which were attached with a taut cord. The bow would be suspended from the ceiling, the cord would be placed in a pile of wool fibers, and the wooden frame would be struck with a mallet in order to get the cord to vibrate. The vibrating cord would separate the fibers. Just how effective or common bowing was is debatable, but at least it was legal. Spinning Once the fibers were combed (or carded or bowed), they were wound on a distaff -- a short, forked stick —in preparation for spinning. Spinning was chiefly the province of women. The spinster would draw a few fibers from the distaff, twisting them between thumb and forefinger as she did so, and attach them to a drop-spindle. The weight of the spindle would pull the fibers down, stretching them out as it spun. The spinning action of the spindle, with the help of the spinsters fingers, twisted the fibers together into yarn. The spinster would add more wool from the distaff until the spindle reached the floor; shed then wind the yarn around the spindle and repeat the process. Spinsters stood as they  spun  so that the drop-spindle could spin out as long a yarn as possible before it had to be wound up. Spinning wheels were probably invented in India sometime after 500 CE.; their earliest recorded use in Europe is in the 13th century. Initially, they werent the convenient sit-down models of later centuries, powered by a foot pedal; rather, they were  hand-powered  and large enough so that the spinster would need to stand to use it. It may not have been any easier on the spinsters feet, but much more yarn could be produced on a spinning wheel than with a drop-spindle. However, spinning with a drop-spindle was common throughout the Middle Ages until the 15th century. Once the yarn was spun, it might be dyed. Whether it was dyed in the wool or in the yarn, color had to be added  by  this stage if a multi-colored cloth was to be produced. Knitting While knitting wasnt wholly unknown in the Middle Ages, scant evidence of hand-knitted garments survives. The relative ease of the craft of knitting and the ready availability of materials and tools for making knitting needles makes it hard to believe that peasants didnt knit themselves warm clothing from wool they got from their own sheep. The lack of surviving garments isnt at all surprising, considering the fragility of all cloth and the amount of time that has passed since the medieval era. Peasants could have worn their knitted garments to pieces, or they may have reclaimed the yarn for alternate uses when the garment grew too old or threadbare to wear any longer. Far more common than knitting in the Middle Ages was weaving. Weaving Weaving cloth was practiced in households as well as in professional cloth-making establishments. In homes where people produced cloth for their own use, spinning was often the province of women, but weaving was usually done by men. Professional weavers in manufacturing locations like Flanders and Florence were also usually men, though women weavers were not unknown. The essence of weaving is, simply, to draw one yarn or thread (the weft) through a set of perpendicular yarns (the warp), threading the weft alternately behind and in front of each individual warp thread. Warp threads were usually stronger and heavier than weft  threads  and came from different grades of fiber. The variety of weights in warps and wefts could result in specific textures. The number of weft fibers drawn through the loom in one pass could vary, as could the number of warps the weft would travel in front of before passing behind; this deliberate variety was used to achieve different textured patterns. Sometimes, warp threads were dyed (usually blue) and weft threads remained undyed, producing colored patterns. Looms  were constructed to make this process go more smoothly. The earliest looms were vertical; the warp threads stretched from the top of the loom to the floor and, later, to a bottom frame or roller. Weavers stood when they worked on vertical looms. The  horizontal loom  made its first appearance in Europe in the 11th century, and by the 12th century, mechanized versions were being used. The advent of the mechanized horizontal loom is generally considered the most important technological development in medieval textile production. A weaver would sit at a mechanized loom, and instead of threading the weft in front of and behind alternate warps by hand, hed merely have to press a foot pedal to raise up one set of alternate warps and draw the weft underneath it in one straight pass. Then hed press the other pedal, which would raise the other set of warps, and draw the weft underneath  that  in the other direction. To make this process easier, a shuttle was used -- a boat-shaped tool that contained yarn wound around a bobbin. The shuttle would glide easily over the bottom set of warps as the yarn unspooled. Fulling  or Felting Once the fabric had been woven and taken off the loom it would be subjected to a  fulling  process. (Fulling wasnt usually necessary if the fabric was made from worsted as opposed to woolen yarn.) Fulling thickened the fabric and made the natural hair fibers mat together through agitation and the application of  liquid. It was more effective if heat was part of the equation, as well. Initially,  fulling  was done by immersing the cloth in a vat of warm water and stomping on it or beating it with hammers. Sometimes additional chemicals were added, including soap or urine to help remove the natural lanolin of the wool or the grease that had been added to protect it in the earlier stages of processing. In Flanders, fullers earth was used in the process to absorb impurities; this was a type of soil containing a significant amount of clay, and it was naturally available in the region. Though originally done by hand (or foot), the  fulling  process gradually became automated through the use of fulling mills. These were often quite large and powered by water, although smaller, hand-cranked machines were also known. Foot-fulling was still done in household manufacturing, or when the cloth was particularly fine and wasnt to be subjected to the harsh treatment of hammers. In towns where cloth manufacture was a thriving household industry, weavers could take their cloth to a communal fulling mill. The term fulling is sometimes used interchangeably with felting. Although the process is essentially the same,  fulling  is done to cloth that has already been woven, whereas felting actually produces cloth from unwoven, separate fibers. Once cloth was fulled or felted, it could not easily unravel. After  fulling, the fabric would be thoroughly rinsed. Even worsteds that didnt need  fulling  would be washed to remove any oil or dirt that had accumulated during the weaving process. Because dyeing was a process that immersed the fabric in liquid, it may have been dyed at this point, especially in home industries. However, it was more common to wait until a later stage in production.  Cloth  that was dyed after it was woven was known as dyed-in-the-piece. Drying After it was rinsed, cloth was hung up to dry. Drying was done on specially-designed frames known as tenter frames, which used tenterhooks to hold the cloth. (This is where we get the phrase on tenterhooks to describe a state of suspense.) The sturdy frames stretched the fabric so that it wouldnt shrink too much; this process was carefully gauged, because fabric that was stretched too far, while large in square feet, would be thinner and weaker than fabric that was stretched to the proper dimensions. Drying was done in the open air; and in cloth-producing towns, this meant the fabric was always subject to inspection. Local regulations often dictated the specifics of drying cloth in order to ensure quality, thus maintaining the reputation of the town as a source of fine cloth, as well as that of the cloth manufacturers themselves. Shearing Fulled fabrics—especially those made from curly-haired woolen yarn -- were often very fuzzy and covered with nap. Once the fabric had been dried, it would be shaved or  sheared  to remove this extra material. Shearers would use a device that had remained pretty much unchanged since Roman times: shears, which consisted of two razor-sharp blades attached to a U-shaped bow spring. The spring, which was made of steel, also served as the handle of the device. A shearer would attach the cloth to a padded table that sloped downward and had hooks to keep the fabric in place. He would then press the bottom blade of his shears into the cloth at the top of the table and gently slide it down, clipping the fuzz and nap by bringing down the top blade as he went. Shearing a piece of fabric completely could take several passes, and would often alternate with the next step in the process, napping. Napping or Teaseling After (and before, and after) shearing, the next step was to raise the nap of the fabric enough to give it a soft, smooth finish. This was done by grooming the cloth with the head of a plant known as a teasel. A teasel was a member of the  Dipsacus  genus and had a dense, prickly flower, and it would be rubbed gently over the fabric. Of course, this could raise the nap so much that the cloth would be too fuzzy and had to be sheared again. The amount of shearing and teaseling necessary would depend on the quality and type of wool used and the result desired. Though metal and wood tools were tested for this step, they were considered potentially too damaging for fine cloth, so the teasel plant was used for this process throughout the Middle Ages. Dyeing Cloth might be dyed in the wool or in the yarn, but even so, it would usually be dyed in the piece as well, either to deepen the color or to combine with the previous dye for a different tint. Dyeing in the piece was a procedure that could realistically take place at almost any point in the manufacturing process, but most commonly it was done after the fabric had been sheared. Pressing When the teaseling and shearing (and, possibly, dyeing) was done, the fabric would be pressed to complete the smoothing process. This was done in a flat, wooden vise. Woven wool that had been fulled, dried, shorn, teaseled, dyed, and pressed could be luxuriously soft to the touch and made into the finest clothing and draperies. Unfinished Cloth Professional cloth manufacturers in wool production towns could, and did, produce cloth from the wool-sorting stage to the final pressing. However, it was quite common to sell fabric that wasnt completely finished. Producing undyed fabric was very common, allowing tailors and drapers to choose just the right hue. And it was not at all uncommon to leave out the shearing and teaseling steps, reducing the price of the fabric for consumers willing and able to perform this task themselves. Cloth Quality and Variety Every step along the manufacturing process was an opportunity for cloth-makers to excel -- or not. Spinners and weavers who had low-quality wool to work with could still turn out fairly decent cloth, but it was common for such wool to be worked with the least possible effort in order to turn out a product quickly. Such cloth would, of course, be cheaper; and it might be used for items other than garments. When manufacturers paid for better raw materials and took the extra time required for higher quality, they could charge more for their products. Their reputation for quality would attract the wealthier merchants, artisans, guildsmen and the nobility. Although sumptuary laws were enacted, usually in times of economic instability, to keep the lower classes from garbing themselves in finery ordinarily reserved for the upper classes, it was more often the extreme expense of the clothing worn by the nobility that kept other people from buying it. Thanks to the diverse kinds of cloth manufacturers and the many types of wool of different levels of quality they had to work with, a wide variety of wool cloth was produced in medieval times.

The Free Trade Agreement - 854 Words

The Free Trade Agreement (FTA) as well as the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) were failures. The North American Free Trade Agreement was one of the most controversial documents of the 20th century, beginning January 1st 1988.1 The reason it was so controversial was because it was loved in some ways yet hated in others. One of the reasons why the FTA and NAFTA were failures is due to the fact that Prime Minister Brian Mulroney lost a lot of votes caused by the amount of voters that disapproved of the FTA and NAFTA. Another reason the FTA and NAFTA were failures is because the agreement did not improve the amount of full time jobs in Canada, which was one of the reasons that the FTA and NAFTA was created in the first place. The final reason the deal failed was because the deal was supposed to improve productivity around Canada but really did nothing. The FTA and NAFTA were failures because it only helped a small handful of Canadians and hindered many more. The first main reason why the FTA and NAFTA were failures was because of the popularity Prime Minister Brian Mulroney lost. Mulroney was elected into government in 1984 with the biggest election win in Canadian history. When he was re-elected in 1988, it gave Mulroney the go ahead with the FTA which was implemented at midnight on January 1st 1989. Before Mulroney brought the FTA to the table he was thought of as the best Prime Minister Canada had ever elected. After the FTA and NAFTA, Mulroney was said to beShow MoreRelatedFree Trade And Trade Agreements1408 Words   |  6 PagesFree Trade Free trade is a policy in which the government does not interfere against imports or impedes with exports by applying tariffs (Encyclopedia, 2015). Free trade is about removing barriers like tariffs, quotas, and other restrictions. Tariffs are taxes that the countries enforce on imported goods and services, they are set in place to make trade harder. This ultimately causes the price of goods and services for consumers to be more expensive. Quotas are a limited quantity countries putRead MoreNafta And The American Free Trade Agreement1253 Words   |  6 PagesOn January 1st, 1994, Canada, the United States of America, and Mexico had signed a free trade agreement, under the name - the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA). This Free Trade Agreement was created to achieve its goal of eliminating barriers to trade and investment between Canada, Mexico and the United States of America. However, the question that politicians and economists of our nation are facing is whether Canada should remain in NAFTA with its partners, United States and Mexico. 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Upon the research, you will discover four online articles to provide more detail and examples. This research will indicate how it was developed and the reasoning on why it would benefit the nation. Also, it will provide events that occur after the agreement was signed by congress and the recession the countries experience during the early 2000s. There will be a chart locatedRead MoreThe North American Free Trade Agreement Essay1420 Words   |  6 Pagessubstance from both parties, but one thing both parties seem to agree on is that free trade has been bad for the U.S. worker. One candidate proclaimed that the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) has cost the United States hundreds of thousands of jobs and another distanced herself from free trade agreements all together. 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The main purpose of NAFTA is essentially to reduce trade barriers in order to promote international commerc e, and open up different industries to trade, in particular textiles, agriculture, and automobile sectors. The introduction of NAFTA completely transformed North American economic relations and led to unparalleled cooperation between the U.S. Canada and MexicoRead MoreThe North American Free Trade Agreement1486 Words   |  6 PagesThe North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA), an agreement signed by three countries in creating rules in trade in North America. NAFTA, when being presented, was described as genuine for helping Mexico and Canada. But was NAFTA really helpings those counties or really just helping North America? Initially North America was being genuine about NAFTA when talking to Mexico and Canada but in reality the NAFTA caused some uneven development as the years went by. I have two stories that

Teaching Proposal on Community Nursing and Health Promotion

Question: Discuss about the Teaching Proposal on Community Nursing and Health Promotion? Answer: Overview of the work Plan of Bio-terrorism in a nutshell The topic theme: Bio-terrorism Specific signature of the lessons: Health Promotion in Community and Society Manner of deliverance: Blend of lectures, online session, clinical session Two hours lecture per week, clinical session (Curran, Ned and Winkleby, 2013) Competency in Community Health Care There are several agents of bio-terrorism. Community teaching is a novel task that includes both indirect and direct activities that facilitate the overall health outcomes. The Baccalaureate programs mainly facilitate diversity of options in nursing practice which is schematically forested to aid the graduates to accomplish The Essentials of Baccalaureate Education for Professional Nursing Practice (AACN, 2008). There are a wide variety of characterizations of the particular practice and these are practice experiences, learning opportunities, strategies, clinical activities etc. The board of directors in AACN has formed a respective RN-BSN task force to scrutinize the opportunity for practical and academic experiences for the enrolled students in RN-BSN curriculum. The courses are responsible for both illustration of direct and indirect care practices linked to the health care service (Elwell, 2015). Respective students gather knowledge regarding the community health promotion concerning bio-terrorism within the society and how the designed framework can be applied for ensuring the better health care to the service provider. The population based health care system is illustrated in the lecture session. The community nursing is an essential component of the national community health services. It involves the district nurses, health visitors, pediatric and mental health surveillance nurses. They have to recognize any kind of physical disabilities in individuals and provide sufficient care in community and social health care set up. Next, we must come to point that, what are the responsibilities and task to be performed by nurses. Mainly, the task performed by them is for example that delivering emergency and common medicines for common disorders and sufferings. They should also provide general medicines and intravenous antibiotics and common wound healing medicines (Greenwald, 2003). Trained nurses and experienced health care professionals are mediators of this type of purpose for those who are affected to bio terrorism. They perform the task regarding the co-operation with patients and the families in such a way the proper information about service framework and care management settings in a hospital or community health service center will be reached to the public affected from bio-terrorism. This can also be in the form of anthrax virus that is used for the given purpose. Apart from the other sectors of health care providing system, the social and community segment has been focused to repetitive re-modulation. The community sector is very much significant for acquiring modification in its care and services that we want to cope up with the contemporary and upcoming challenges in front of the health care service and system. They are an indispensible factor in an endeavor to give community co-operative care, individual and person-centered care as well as targeting towards the overall improvement in public health services and finally the reduction in hospital admission as soon as possible. More than a few numbers of high-priority and effective government policies have been developed in such that the better health care would be provided with a rapid and emergency action. Purpose of the Study The proper training about the community health care delivering is the prime importance of the course work regarding bioterrorism. The aim and objective of this respective course study is to give proper training and instructions about how the community health care can be assured by health care professionals as well as the newly graduate nurses (Montgomery and Johnson, 2015). Proposed Outcome Particular teaching objective Objective Learners have profusely engaged themselves in the course work. Preface to the course work, the attendees having no idea about the community health care plans, standardized outcome and basic schematic on the subject matter (Zandee et al., 2013) Reaction The trainer should introduce the respective lesson with utmost effort to cope up with student needs. The pre-determined learning format is used and some referred text books are read for knowledge gathering (Oudshoorn et al., 2013). Proposed teaching plan Learning aspiration Evaluation of activity Learning mode Organization comprehension 1. Identification of the organizational facts about the factors affecting bioterrorism a. Literature review on Community health service on bioterrorism b. Epidemiological database c. Community health as a social policy- past and the future aspects d. Key aspects in re-modernization e. Public health service implementation f. Regulations and Legislations set by Government directive 1. Quizzes and interactive session 2. Discussion board 3. Case study on community health issues- a certain disease outbreak in country 4. Specialty assessment on community health lessons 1. Group discussion and interaction 2. Solving problem workbook 3. Thorough reading and understanding journal articles and review papers 4. Lecture notes Appliance 2. Implementing community health study in bioterrorism a. Assessment of health protection aspects, practical and clinical excellence guidelines, understanding communal and personal belief b. Evidence based data on Health promotional strategy and c. Application of evidence based data to improvise the service policy d. Measuring quality to ensure better health care service e. Key aspects for policy improvement program 1. Quizzes and interactive session 2. Discussion board 3. Drawbacks of the policy standards and legislation 4. Approach to re-construct the policy standard 5. Paper on community health examination 1. Group discussions 2. Field Survey on community health issues 3. Exercise on community health assessment 4. Exercise on community health evaluation Integration 3. Consideration of social and communal health care issues and threats a. Prevalence rate of different diseases in the community b. Principles of nursing care c. Clinical judgment and decision making skills d. Community health issues and vulnerable disease and virus identification with bioterrorism (Simpson, 2012) 1. Quizzes and interactive session 2. Discussion board 3. Promotional strategy for ensuring better health care management for vulnerable disease conditions 1. Group discussion and interaction 2. Exercise on community health and vulnerable disease control management Individual Assessment 4. Self-assessment as a community nursing staff a. Social integrity advocating b. Health promotional strategy- personal beliefs and views in the population c. Behavioral and social intervention- key role of community health service 1. Discussion board 2. Learning assortment 1. Group discussion and interaction 2. Personal assessment test Service and Care 5. Demonstration on personal ability as a service provider a. Advocating social justice d. Health promotional strategy- personal beliefs and views in the population b. Behavioral and social intervention- key role of community health service 1. Improvement of health education program for special community health issues 2. Poster session 3. Discussion board 1. Group discussion and interaction 2. Exercise and evaluation 6. Lesson on learning techniques a) Self-learning procedure b) Understanding policy plans on community health 1. Discussion board 2. Improvement of health education program for special community health issues 1. Group discussion and interaction 2. Exercise and evaluation Expected Outcome Community peoples are the main service user in the health care service system provided by the health care professionals concerning bioterrorism. In response to the nursing education sufficiency, the expected outcome would be observed and the better health care system is formulated. The disease suffering and rapid treatment and curing are forested as an overall outcome and response to the proper implementation of the training program. The student response is also important for nursing education program. The respective and contemporary changes are required to facilitate the indicative responsive manners (Sarker and Joarder, 2012). Reference List Curran, N., Ned, J. and Winkleby, M. (2013). Engaging Students in Community Health: A Public Health Advocacy Curriculum.Health Promotion Practice, 15(2), pp.271-280. Elwell, J. (2015). Practical Health Promotion.Journal of Christian Nursing, 32(3), pp.174-178. Greenwald, B. (2003). Health Fairs.Gastroenterology Nursing, 26(5), pp.191-194. Montgomery, M. and Johnson, P. (2015). Increasing Nursing Students' Knowledge of Health Promotion Through Community Engagement.Pedagogy in Health Promotion. Oudshoorn, A., Ward-Griffin, C., Poland, B., Berman, H. and Forchuk, C. (2013). Community Health Promotion With People Who Are Experiencing Homelessness.Journal of Community Health Nursing, 30(1), pp.28-41. Sarker, M. and Joarder, T. (2012). Intersectoral collaboration: a novel path to promote community health promotion.Global Health Promotion, 19(4), pp.7-8. Zandee, G., Bossenbroek, D., Slager, D. and Gordon, B. (2013). Teams of Community Health Workers and Nursing Students Effect Health Promotion of Underserved Urban Neighborhoods.Public Health Nursing, 30(5), pp.439-447.

Supervision And Skills In The Hospitality Industry Tourism Essay Essay Example

Supervision And Skills In The Hospitality Industry Tourism Essay Essay This study gives a elaborate analysis of the instance survey The Courthouse Hotel and besides answers the chief inquiries of staffing issues for the hotel in the approaching months along with the schemes which will assist to work out the jobs. Besides it describes the staff s reaction when the hotel is being upgraded to a four star and besides when the German delegates will be remaining in the hotel and utilizing its services followed by the stairss which will be taken by the supervisor take to minimise the impact of reaction to the proposed alterations in the hotel. The hotel is a three star located in the metropolis Centre. It has 150 suites with a Carver manner eating house and a little map room. Among the entire staff, 95 % work for full clip lasting contract and the staying 5 % are portion clip members. Majority of the invitees stay merely during the weeknights so the staff works merely for one weekend out of every four weekends. It besides faces competition signifier good known national and international hotels. Harmonizing to the instance a celebrated concern adult male took over the hotel before three months. He found that many other hotels are developing up including the convention Centre which is coming up really near by hotel so he thought to convey up the class of the hotel to a four star. For that he added on assorted services which include the big feasting installation, an a La menu eating house, a porter service and besides the room service. So if the needed criterions of a four star hotel and those of a competition are achieved he expects the concern to travel up by 60 % . Following summer the Courthouse has large challenge as inter governmental conference is to be held in the metropolis and for that the German delegates which includes the Chancellor of the Exchequer, politicians, advisers, civil retainers and other journalists are coming and non merely remaining in the hotel but besides have assorted imperativeness conferences and it is their concern to maintain them happy and non merely to give them what they expect but besides exceed their outlooks by giving exceeding service. This is merely possible if the interpersonal accomplishments are improved, the staff is trained and client service criterions are adhered to. 2. Staffing issues and schemes We will write a custom essay sample on Supervision And Skills In The Hospitality Industry Tourism Essay specifically for you for only $16.38 $13.9/page Order now We will write a custom essay sample on Supervision And Skills In The Hospitality Industry Tourism Essay specifically for you FOR ONLY $16.38 $13.9/page Hire Writer We will write a custom essay sample on Supervision And Skills In The Hospitality Industry Tourism Essay specifically for you FOR ONLY $16.38 $13.9/page Hire Writer Staffing is the major portion of the direction map and plays an of import function in planing the operation of the organisation. Without staff the organisation can non be. So it is necessary that all the issues related to the staffs are solved and guaranting that staff are happy with the organisation. Because it is said that If you [ the director ] return attention of the employees, the employees will take attention of the invitees, and the net incomes will take attention of themselves ( Anon, cited in Miller 2006, p17 ) . So the issues followed by its schemes are described below. 2.1 Issues Lack of interpersonal accomplishments: The Courthouse hotels staff deficiency in interpersonal accomplishments. It is the basic accomplishment which is expected from an hotelkeeper. The word is self explanatory which means that the staff should be able to understand others what he/she want to convey and on the other manus he/she should be able to convey the message in such a manner that the intent is understood. This is missing among the staff and it needs to be improved. It is a serious issue because if the staffs convey the incorrect message so straight or indirectly it will surely impact the invitee and therefore the gross of the hotel will besides be affected. Lack of proper Shift timings: The displacement timings presently followed in the hotel is 6.30-3.30 and 3.00-11.00. This timing is non executable because of the high criterions of the hotel and besides when the German Chancellor and his squad arrive in the hotel they will hold to execute work more expeditiously and exactly and besides at a great gait which involves batch of difficult work. So the hotel should hold the timings in such a manner that all staff is every bit distributed in all the displacements. The timings can be from 0600-1600, 1500-23.00, 0900-1800 and 2200-0700. Ratio of lasting staff and portion clip staff: Presently there is 95 % of the lasting staff and merely 5 % are under portion clip. But with the current state of affairs where the criterions are high and besides the reaching of German Chancellors staffing is a major job in the hotel. Unless and until the staffing is changed and there is a equal distribution of permanent every bit good as portion clip staff the hotel will non be able to run swimmingly. If we appoint more of portion clip staff members than the full clip staff so the staff cost will be reduced and besides acquire the work done. This will besides cut down political relations among the staff which is a major concern these yearss. Staffs merely work for hebdomad darks: It is said that the staff merely work for hebdomad yearss and every one hebdomad terminal out of four. But in a four star hotel where service affairs, staff demand to work for 24/7 with equal distribution of displacements. So it is besides a major concern for the hotel because for an efficient room service staff needs to work more and every twenty-four hours. Rather than working merely for one hebdomad terminal, staff should be given off for at least one twenty-four hours per hebdomad and work for all the hebdomad ends. Competition Because of many developments in the hotel in the close by countries, the competition has increased to a great extent. All hotels have the same eating houses, suites and installations what affairs is the type of service offered. 2.2 Schemes Enrolling the prospective staff: The really first measure for the hotel is to hold a good homo resource squad who will enroll the possible staff who has the needed quality of an hotelkeeper and is willing to function the invitees. The human resource squad should measure each and every campaigner via personal interview and prove his capablenesss and cognition. Here enrolling the experient staff will be of great aid. Developing the interpersonal accomplishments of the staff: The staff should be able to pass on clearly and exactly with his couples and besides with the invitees. It is because an person can non run the hotel or a eating house own his ain. Team work is a must for the staff. For illustration if a steward does nt convey the right thing to the chef the chef would non understand and finally the invitee will be unsated and angry and consequence in ailments. If the staffs have good interpersonal accomplishments so they besides will be able to function the invitee every bit rapidly as possible which will cut down the bringing clip and aid in good clip direction. If the house maintaining staff do nt convey about the room clearance the forepart office will non be able to sell room to the invitees which will impact the gross of the hotel. So a good interpersonal accomplishment is a must in each and every administration. Motivating the staff: Motivation can be defined as the art of acquiring people to make what you want them to make because they want to make it ( US President Dwight Eisenhower, cited in quotations.about.com ) . In other words motive is the interior power or energy to make a undertaking with full enthusiasm. Motivation can be applied to each and every thing whether it is little or large it does nt count. It is the most of import key to success ( sasson2008 ) . So in the approaching months the staffs of Courthouse Hotel needs to be motivated. For that each and every staff needs to hold a end. The direction should give inducements or honor the staff for giving a good public presentation. Besides organizing certain Tourss and games will besides maintain the staff motivated. Supplying appropriate preparation: The staff should be trained harmonizing to the criterions of the hotel because the hotel is being upgraded to a four star it will hold a new set of processs and criterions which need to be followed purely. The proficient cognition should besides be given to the staff because unless the staffs have a good cognition they will non be able to work confidently in forepart of the invitees. So a good proficient cognition along with cognition related to the basic criterions of client service will assist to function the invitees more confidently and exactly. Follow set service criterions and processs: As the hotel is upgraded to a four star and besides it has German Delegates and Chancellors remaining in the hotel, so the hotel has to develop new service criterions and processs which is necessary for all the staff non merely to cognize but besides follow. If found non found following the regulations the staff should be penalised. 3. Staff reaction to the proposed alterations and supervisors actions It is said that alteration is the jurisprudence of nature. So change harmonizing to the demand has to be at that place. As the universe is altering fast and the administrations should besides alter and follow the new alterations harmonizing to the demand. The administrations who can follow the alteration solves the job of the staff and keeps them motivated survives and excels while the other has to fight difficult to last. So staff may respond in many ways to these proposed alterations which needs to be evaluated and solved to understate it every bit much as it can be with the aid of supervisors. 3.1 Staff reaction The staff may respond in a figure of ways to these alterations of hotel up step and reaching of Germans. Staff might go forth the hotel: Due to the up step of the hotel staff might decline to work. It is so because they are accustomed to that type of environment and do nt desire to alter. It is besides possible that they do nt desire to work excess and pass more clip in the hotel because with this alteration staff will be holding a batch of load. Staff might travel on work stoppage: With this sudden alteration in the hotel the staff might oppose these alterations and they might organize a brotherhood and travel on work stoppage. It is so because they do nt wish to alter or do nt believe the new concern adult male who has taken over the hotel. This will give a negative promotion to the hotel and will convey down the hotels position really severely. Might work half heartedly: Even though the staff might work after the alterations has been made but would non work the same manner as they were working antecedently. They would non respond in the same enthusiastically as they were antecedently. They would non follow the new regulations which will be developed for the improvement of the service and hotel and besides go irregular. This will straight impact the hotels concern negatively. Might develop a negative attitude: Staff besides would non follow the supervisors order and consequence in struggles and grudges and accordingly affect the staffs inter relation which will impact the service criterions. They might besides develop an attitude of being non loyal to the company. It is besides possible that the staff might be really positive to these reactions: Apart from these negative reactions it is possible that the staff might respond really positively and take it as a great challenge. It will besides assist in positive promotion of the hotel. 3.2 Supervisors actions to understate the impact of reactions A supervisor is any individual who manages people who make merchandises and/or perform services ( Miller et al, 2006, p5 ) . So supervisors public presentation depends on his staffs public presentation. So if he is able to pull off them decently and efficaciously he will success in his work. It is the work of supervisor to pull off resources, procedure, information and people. A supervisor should hold a good proficient cognition, communicate decently, handle struggle, supply support and offer congratulations. He should besides be able to work out jobs, make determinations and manage clip efficaciously. The supervisor should convey them all together and work in a group together. It has to be a squad work because cipher can work entirely. He should convert all the staff to work united. He should put himself as an illustration to his squad. He should take by giving those illustrations where he has truly excelled in any work and has given an extraordinary end product. This will animate them besides to make the same for the company and besides for themselves. Make a positive work environment. The environment sets it all. They should actuate them all and should continuously honor the staff for their good work. He should be able to make the flow of work which will do them busy in such a manner that they do nt experience bored. Motivate the staff. Supervisor should continuously honor the staff for their good work and should besides throw an unfastened party to the staff for an exceeding twenty-four hours. Obtain the necessary resources, and pull off them suitably. He should garner all the resources and set together to work by pull offing them decently. Treat all squad members reasonably and every bit without any favoritism of sex. ( Wagen etal.2003p15-21 ) 4. Decision The hotel Courthouse is being up graded and besides it has German delegates and Chancellor of the Exchequers coming and remaining in the hotel. So in the months to come it is traveling to confront many jobs. So in order to get the better of those jobs it has to hold a scheme and solutions which will assist them to over semen and assist them to maintain up their criterions. One of the biggest jobs is the deficiency of interpersonal accomplishments which can be developed via appropriate preparation by bettering the communicating accomplishments, developing the squad work and supplying the appropriate cognition. The staff timings and displacements besides need changed and an appropriate measure demands to be taken which will split the staff every bit in all the displacements without any favoritism and jobs. The chief scheme to get the better of the job is to enroll merely the budding staffs that are capable of making and giving their best what is expected. For that the campaigners need to be personally interviewed and tested on their cognition and managing state of affairss. In this instance of hotel up step experient staff can assist a batch in actuating staff and acquiring the best out of the employees. Due to the major alterations in the hotel staff may respond in a figure of ways. Some may wish it and take it really sportingly and lend in the improvement of the administration. Where as some may oppose it and can travel on work stoppage, might work half heartedly or might go forth the occupation in the fright of excess load and work and besides some do nt wish to alter and prefer to work as they are. In order to cut down the staff jobs and their negative reactions the supervisor has to take effectual reactions which will assist the constitution in the improvement of them.

To Open a Pandoras Box

To Open a Pandoras Box To Open a Pandoras Box To Open a Pandoras Box By Maeve Maddox Ive found an expression that annoys me more than deja vu all over again. Its a box of Pandoras. Denmark has tumbled into a box of Pandoras. Meryl may regret having opened this whole box of Pandoras (language site, discussion of the difference between can and may) My, I do seem to have opened a can of worms (or a box of Pandoras) here. (the topic is the music of Chopin.) In many places the expression is attributed to former governor of New Mexico Bruce King: His [Kings] most famous malapropism, frequently repeated by legislators during floor debates, was the time King said that a legislative proposal would open a whole box of Pandoras. (Santa Fe-New Mexican, Nov. 14, 2009) Ive also seen it attributed to Casey Stengel, Al Gore, former Arkansas Governor Frank White, and former Washington D.C. mayor Marion Barry. Ideas about nature are famously malleable. Try to take just a peek, and Shazamm!you have opened what Casey Stengal [sic] once called A Box of Pandoras. (excerpt at Amazon from a published book about Nature) We dont want to open up a box of Pandoras. Vice-President Albert Gore, Jr. (comment at a site called TruckNet) â€Å"We dont want to open a box of Pandoras.† That was said by Marion Barry, the former mayor of Washington, D.C. He was referring to the Greek Pandoras’ Box. (a blog called Dahn Batchelors opinions) As former Gov. Frank White of Arkansas once put it, the president thus opened a whole box of Pandoras. (article by Frank Perly at WashingtonTimes.com, May 18, 2010) The expression to open a Pandoras box has long been used to describe an act that may have unforeseen and unpleasant consequences. It derives from a Greek myth in which the woman Pandora, driven by curiosity, opens a jar (or a box) containing various human evils, unintentionally loosing them on the world. The distortion to open a box of Pandoras may owe its galloping popularity to its similarity to opening a can of worms. As a figurative expression, opening a box of Pandoras may have sounded amusing the first time it was used, but as an ongoing expression it gets old fast. NOTE: the word Pandora on its own enjoys a huge popularity as a product name and in other contexts. Someone opening a delivery of electronic gadgets might have reason to declare that he was opening a box of Pandoras. Want to improve your English in five minutes a day? Get a subscription and start receiving our writing tips and exercises daily! Keep learning! Browse the Misused Words category, check our popular posts, or choose a related post below:100 Words for Facial ExpressionsUse a Dash for Number Ranges5 Ways to Reduce Use of Prepositions

7 Reasons to Become an Occupational Therapy Assistant

7 Reasons to Become an Occupational Therapy Assistant You might be familiar with what an occupational therapist does, but you might not be aware of what an occupational therapy assistant does- or even that such a position exists. But this crucial role does exist and open positions are actually on the rise across the country. It’s one of the most in-demand jobs out there in the health care field. If you still need convincing, here are a few of the many great reasons to become a certified occupational therapy assistant (COTA).1. Increasing Quality of LifeMost people don’t value their ability to do the normal day-to-day functions; they just do them. Occupational therapy assistants help patients who have been injured, disabled, or otherwise lost function through age or disease. And when their patients are able to perform even the most basic functions- which contribute so much to quality of life- it is a major victory. Their contributions are enormous in people’s lives and help them rebuild confidence and meaning in thei r lives.2. Working with the Whole PersonPlenty of health care professionals don’t have the kind of quality time to deal with their patients as people. COTAs, on the other hand, have a special patient-provider relationship that deepens and develops over time. They get to watch their patients do something today that they couldn’t do yesterday, and keep helping them to better their daily lives.3. Working with AnyoneCOTAs are not restricted to working only with one age group. They’re able to work with pediatrics, geriatrics, and everything in between. For sheer diversity of clients, this job cannot be beat.4. Responsibility and OversightA lot of jobs give you tons of responsibility, but very little oversight. COTAs work closely with OTs, which means they almost always have help, while still directing much of their own one-on-one work with their patients.5. Creative PotentialAn OTA never finds their job dull. It requires a great deal of creative thinking and guarante es that no two days will be the same. There are even a wide range of toys and smartphone apps to help both patient and provider.6. High DemandOTAs are in high demand. Nearly 80% of OTAs find a job within six months of graduating from a program. You can usually find work with just an associate’s degree, and salaries are on the rise.7. Low StressNot only is there great job security in this field, with COTA roles growing faster than the national average, the day-to-day work remains rather low-stress in comparison with other health care jobs. And is overwhelmingly rewarding.

Deregulation of Electricity Markets Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1000 words

Deregulation of Electricity Markets - Essay Example The regional markets for electricity generation and distribution typically resemble monopolistic markets with few suppliers. However, they have been under the variety of controls imposed by the concerned state in which they operated. These controls had more of social objectives than the commercial objectives. Such social objectives included ensuring uninterrupted power supply at the affordable price for the general consumer. Take for instance the case of California. In the state of California he three monopolistic power suppliers was regulated by the State commission.Kunnapallil(Centre) describes this scenario as follows, â€Å"California’s electricity industry was vertically integrated and organized around three regulated private monopolies or investor-owned Utilities (IOUs): Pacific Gas & Electric Company (PG&E), Southern California Edison Company (SCE), and San Diego Gas & Electric Company (SDG&E).These companies owned and operated everything from generation, transmission, and distribution and catered to the electricity needs of consumers in their exclusive franchise areas. California Public Utilities Commission (CPUC), an independent state regulatory agency, heavily regulated the prices, costs, and service obligations of these. These three companies together supplied three-fourths of the total consumption†. In the early 1990s, Californian polity came to the realization that its electricity markets were so heavily regulated that the productions process had become inefficient and the producers were passing on merrily the high cost of production to the customers.California cost of electricity was one of the highest in the US at the time. As Beder (2001) states, â€Å"Before deregulation the Californian government set electricity rates and guaranteed the private utilities a set return on their investment. But it was argued that this provided no incentive for the utilities to cut costs. Prices were high compared to some other states, mainly because of cost overruns of billions of dollars on two nuclear power plants.  Ã‚  

Punishment Term Paper Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1250 words

Punishment - Term Paper Example They can be fined, incarcerated or sentenced to death for the gravest offences in some countries such as the US, Japan, China and the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia among others. Corporal punishment is applied by teachers and parents in schools and in the family setting to encourage good behavior among children. The issue of punishment usually raises concerns in regard to the different understanding and application of punishment across different spheres in the society. Contentions arise in trying to determine the standards for determining the severity of a moral violation, and the punishment that fits it. This paper presents a critique of the moral principles that might be used to determine the match between moral violation and punishment. Hart postulated some elements that may be used to justify punishment. For example, he argues that the punishment has to be for an offence that is contrary to the set of laws in a particular state and also has to be enforced and undertaken by an authority that is defined by a legal system, which the offender is in breach of (qtd. in Sverdlik, 180). This indicates that the punishment should only be based on particular rules that have been set and therefore punishment for offences that are beyond the legally known rules is not justifiable. This argument leaves teachers and parents in a position whereby they are not justified in regard to the punishments that they give to children. They punish the children depending on their perception regarding what is right or wrong. The appropriateness of the punishment is usually not clear and the legality of punishments in schools as well as at home is disputable. The same case applies in the punishments meted out on individuals who engage in antis ocial behaviors in the society. For instance, mob justice is one of the punishments that the public resorts to after catching a suspected criminal. The punishment that

Of Mice and Men - Discuss the themes in the play Essay Example for Free

Of Mice and Men Discuss the themes in the play Essay By themes, I mean the ideas, which the author is trying to give us. Most authors do not write just for fun, but to show us that there is a message that they would like us to learn behind the plot. Usually the ideas are ones that the author believes in deeply. The themes are under the following headings: * Loneliness Loneliness affects many of the characters, and Steinbeck seems to show that it is a natural result of the kind of life they are forced to lead. The workers are caught in a trap of loneliness they never stay in one place long enough to form long lasting relationships. Even if the relationships existed, they would probably be destroyed by the demands of their life. Candy is lonely because he is old, and is different from the other hands. His only comfort is his old dog, which keeps him company and reminds him of days when he was young and whole. He has no relatives, and once his dog is killed he is totally alone. He eagerly grasps at the idea of buying a farm with George and Lennie, but of course this all comes to nothing. Candys disappointment is shown in the bitter words he utters to the body of Curleys wife, who he blames for spoiling his dream. George is also caught in the trap of loneliness. Just as Candy has his dog for company, George has Lennie (who is often described in animal-like terms). George too is left completely alone when Lennie is killed. The dream farm is his idea, and he says Wed belong there no more runnin around the country Another lonely character is Curleys wife. Newly married and in a strange place, she is forbidden by Curley to talk to anyone but him. She constantly approaches the ranch hands on the excuse of looking for Curley. The only result is that the men regard her as a slut, and Curley becomes even more intensely jealous. Finally, her loneliness leads to her death as she makes the mistake of trying to defeat it by playing with Lennie. Curley himself is lonely. His new wife hates him, as do all the ranch hands who dislike him for his cowardice. He has married, to try and escape his loneliness, but has chosen a wife totally inappropriate for the kind of life he desires. His feelings are all of aggressive behaviour, which places his wife further away from him and leads to the incident with Lennie where his hand is crushed. Crooks is another who is isolated because he is different. He copes with it by keeping a distance between himself and the other hands. When he does allow himself to be drawn into the dream of working on George and Lennies dream farm, he is immediately shut out by Georges anger. * Violence The story has many examples of a kind of needless violence. For example, Candy relates how the boss gave them whisky and allowed a fight to take place in the bunkhouse. Curley is the most obvious violent character, and whenever he appears there is a feeling of tension. He causes George to remarkwhat the hells he got on his shoulder. Candy explains that Curley often picks on big guys (a sure sign of trouble for Lennie). We are prepared for Curleys later anger, which adds up at the end in his wish to shoot him in the guts. Carlson is another character associated with violence. He is unconcerned about killing Candys dog (and in fact cleans the gun in Candys presence). He goes to watch the fun when Curley thinks Slim may be with his wife, and later threatens Curley more, saying kick your head off. Later he is very keen to get his gun to join in the hunt for Lennie. The last words in the book belong to Carlson, and it is little surprise that they reveal his complete inability to understand Georges feelings about the death of Lennie. Compared to the other characters, Lennie reveals an unintentional violence. He does not even think to fight back when Curley attacks him, but when he does, it is with immense and uncontrollable power. He has so little control over his own strength that he accidentally kills his puppy, and then minutes later snuffs out the life of Curleys wife. His actions on these occasions are compared to those of an animal, powerful but thoughtless. Curleys wife is attracted to him because of the violence he had shown in crushing her husbands hand. It is the threat of violence to be used against Lennie that causes George to take the final step of killing his friend. * Dreams Dreams are one of the ways in which the characters fight the loneliness and hopelessness of their day to day lives. The most obvious example is the dream farm, a dream shared at first only by George and Lennie, but which later spreads to include Candy and Crooks. Crooks reveals that it is the favourite dream of the ranchers: Seems like ever guy got land in his head. It is a powerful dream, and even Crooks falls under its spell for a short time. To Lennie, the dream is a cure to disappointment and loneliness, and he often asks George to say the description of the farm to him again. Curleys wife is another who has dreams, her fantasies of a part in the movies and a life of luxury. Part of her sadness with her life is that it can never measure up to her dreams. But, none of the characters ever achieve their dreams. * Nature Steinbeck shows that nature is a beautiful and peaceful place, but threatened by the actions of men. The beginning of the story sets this pattern, as the creatures at the pool are disturbed by George and Lennies approach. The ranch and its buildings, being created by men, are in contrast with the natural world. For example the bunkhouse is quite bare and stark. Even more unnatural is that Candy and Crooks are either deformed in appearance. Contrasted to these two characters is Lennie, who almost seems a part of the natural world as he is described in animal terms. In fact, one of Lennies dreams is to go and live by himself in a cave. Maybe this would be the only way in which the natural world of Lennie would not come into conflict with the world of men.. Steinbeck referred to this story as a play/novel, and we are shown how closely it does resemble a play. Each section or chapter is set in a clearly defined place like a scene in a play. The beginning of each section contains detailed description, like stage directions in a play, while the rest of each section is mostly dialogue. This may seem like a rather unreal way to write a novel, but Steinbeck does it so well that we do not notice. A noticeable feature of the language of the novel is what a critic might call economy. One result of this is that almost every sentence is important in one way or another, either in developing a character, moving the plot forward or hinting at action still to come. Steinbeck has skilfully created a number of parallel events into the story. Candy and his dog provide a parallel to George and Lennie. And also, when Lennie kills Curleys wife, it echoes his earlier killing of the puppy. There are many such echoes and parallels in the book. Steinbeck has also shown us the way in which capturing the spoken language of the characters gives a better feel to the story. Most of them are uneducated, and this shows through in their use of broken and slang language. Even their uneducated pronunciation has been shown Steinbeck also uses colours and sounds to great effect. For example, Curleys wife is associated with red, symbolic of danger or passion perhaps. A further strong association is that of Lennie with animals. At various times he is described as a bull, a bear and a dog. Even when not directly compared with an animal, he is described in animal terms. For example, his hand is a paw. This is particularly appropriate for Lennie, as he usually acts in the simple, natural way of an animal. Soledad is a real place in California and its name can mean loneliness or a lonely place. A cue to one of the major themes of the novel right at the beginning.

The Suez Canal :: History Historical Essays

The Suez Canal Count Ferdinand de Lesseps, a Frenchman had long dreamed of a canal that pierced the Isthmus. For most of his life, this was simply a dream. He had made a living for himself by holding political positions in Tunis, Egypt, Rotterdam, Malaga, and Barcelona; had been minister at Madrid, and, finally, at Rome. Something about Egypt had struck him in a way that never truly let go. After roughly twenty five years of service, the French government notified Lesseps that what he was doing in Rome was not being supported. Lesseps managed to quell the problem in 1849, but the experience had left a distasteful mark on him that he couldn’t resolve. This led to his resignation from the service, and into retirement at the age of fifty. Now with the end of his career, he was free in a way that he hadn’t been in a long time. His thoughts again and more frequently drifted to Egypt. What once a dream, was now a possibility. Using connections he had made in Egypt during his time in the service, he made contact with them and immediately following their positive response embarked on a trip to investigate his ever more possible dream. The construction of this project faced formidable opposition. Lesseps appealed to Napoleon for help. Napoleon agreed, and helped put the wheels of this project in motion. It was not until 1869 that the canal was finally opened its one hundred mile stretch completely. It was again modified in 1885 substantially to further increased efficiency. The idea behind the Suez Canal was not invented for the first time in the 19th century. It actually dates back to Ancient Egypt and the Pharos. The Pharos went as Far as building smaller canals in the Nile delta in the Red sea. The first Canal to be excavated is linked strongly by evidence to the Pharaoh Necho in the 6th century BC. During the Persian invasion of Egypt, King Darius gave instructions for a canal to be built which started in the Gulf of Suez and ran to the Bitter Lake. The second part of the canal ran from the Bitter Lake to the Nile delta. This canal was known as the Red Sea Canal. This canal fell into disrepair, but was rectified by the Roman Emperor Trajan, and yet again by the Arab king Amr Ibn-Al-Aas.

The National Forest Management Act

Writing Assignment Resource Management Policy The National Forest Management Act (NFMA) of 1976 is a federal law that reorganized, expanded and amended the Forest and Rangeland Renewable Resources Planning Act of 1974, which called for the management of renewable resources on national forest lands. The National Forest Management Act requires the Secretary of Agriculture to assess forest lands, develop a management program based on multiple-use, sustained-yield principles, and implement a resource management plan for each unit of the National Forest System.It is the primary statute governing the administration of national forests. The NFMA had a particular focus in regulating when, where, and how much timber could be harvested and in requiring public involvement in preparing and revising the plans. In 1982 the NFMA published the Planning Regulations, a process that planned to integrate the many interests concerning the forests. There are ten major steps to this process.Identify issues , concerns, and opportunities (ICOs); Develop planning criteria; Collect data and information necessary to address ICOs; Analyze the management situation (AMS); Formulate a broad range of alternatives including a ‘no action, alternative; Estimate the effects of each alternative on the environment, the economy, and society; Evaluate alternatives by comparing how well each resolves the ICOs; Select a preferred alternative; Implement the plan by updating all uses of the forest into conformity of the forest plan; and monitor and evaluate the plan by comparing the actual biological effects of the plan to the projections.The NFMA has started many legal suits regarding the degree of involvement required by both the forest service and the public, but the most famous was the Ohio Forestry Association v. Sierra Club. The Sierra Club claimed that the logging practices allowed in the Wayne National Forest in Southeast Ohio were unlawful under NFMA because the Act requires ongoing input an d management from the Forest Service.The Court rejected the claims of the Sierra Club and stated the Forest Service is not an agency required to perform ongoing action or involvement in the forest plans. BIBLIOGRAPHY: * Pegg, J. r. â€Å"Bush Converts National Forest Management to Corporate Model. †Ã‚  Environment News Service. Web. 14 Nov. 2011. ;http://www. ens-newswire. com/ens/dec2004/2004-12-23-10. html;. * â€Å"National Forest Management Act of 1976. †Ã‚  Wikipedia, the Free Encyclopedia. Web. 14 Nov. 2011. ;http://en. wikipedia. org/wiki/National_Forest_Management_Act_of_1976;.

Chemistry 105 Practice Test: Answer Key

Chem 105 PracticeTest 1Note: There will not be this many questions on your test, I just wanted to give you as much practice as possible. Also, none of these exact questions will be on the test, just similar questions. Also, make sure you can do the homework, as I may have some questions similar to the homework questions. 1. Molecules can be described as a. a mixture of two or more pure substances. b. a mixture of two or more elements that has a specific ratio between components. c. two or more atoms chemically joined together. d. a heterogeneous mixture e. a homogeneous mixture Answer: C 2. Dalton's Atomic Theory states . that all elements have several isotopes. b. that matter is composed of small indestructible particles. c. that the properties of matter are determined by the properties of atoms. d. that energy is neither created nor destroyed during a chemical reaction. e. that an atom is predominantly empty space. Answer: B 3. Which of the following represents a hypothesis? a. Sodium reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. b. Nitrogen gas is a fairly inert substance. c. Nickel has a silvery sheen. d. When a substance combusts, it combines with air. e. When wood burns, heat is given off. Answer: D 4. Which is true of a Scientific Theory (circle all that apply) a. It is an interpretation for an observation b. It is a general explanation for the manifestation and behavior of all nature c. It can be validated or invalidated by experiment and observation d. It describes why things happen Answer: B, C, and D 5. Mass (circle all that apply) a. Is dependent on location (gravity) b. Is the amount of matter in a substance and remains the same regardless of location c. can be measured by using a scale or balance d. is measured in ml Answer: B and C 6. The states of matter are a. Solid and gas b. Liquid and gas . Gas, solid, and liquid d. Gas, air, and vapor Answer: C 7. A liquid (circle all that apply) a. Has a definite volume b. Has particles that are less orderly and can move about freely c. Has particles that are tightly packed d. Has no definite volume or shape e. Answer: A and B 8. Identify dry ice as a solid, liquid, or gas. a. solid b. liquid c. gas d. both solid and liquid Answer: A 9. When a gas is cooled (circle all that apply) a. Its molecules have fewer energetic collisions b. The motion of the gas particles decrease c. The motion of gas particles increase d. Nothing happens to the gas particles Answer: A and B 10. Classify each of the following as a mixture or a pure substance: a. Carbon dioxide _____________________ b. Blood ______________________ c. Helium (He) ______________________ d. Sugar water _______________________ Answer: A-pure substance; B-mixture; C-pure substance; D-mixture 11. Choose the pure substance from the list below. a. sea water b. sugar c. air d. lemonade e. milk Answer: B 12. Choose the heterogeneous mixture from the list below. a. Gatorade b. chlorine gas c. black coffee d. chicken noodle soup e. carbon (graphite) Answer: D 13. Which of the following statements about crystalline and amorphous solids is TRUE? a. A crystalline solid is composed of atoms or molecules arranged with long-range repeating order. b. An example of a crystalline solid is glass. c. An example of an amorphous solid is table salt (NaCl). d. An amorphous solid is composed of atoms or molecules with a majority of its volume empty. e. All of the above statements are TRUE. Answer: A 14. A substance that can't be chemically broken down into simpler substances is considered to be a. a homogeneous mixture. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. compound. e. an electron. Answer: B 15. Two or more substances in variable proportions, where the composition is constant throughout are considered a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. a homogeneous mixture. e. a crystalline solid. Answer: D 16. Which of the following are examples of physical change? a. sugar is dissolved in water. b. coffee is brewed. c. dry ice sublimes. d. ice (solid water) melts. e. All of these are examples of physical change. Answer: E 17. Which of the following are examples of a chemical change? a. coffee brewing b. water boiling c. nails rusting d. alt dissolves in water e. None of the above are chemical changes. Answer: C 18. Which of the following represents a physical property? a. Sodium metal is extremely reactive with chlorine gas. b. Mercury is a silver liquid at room temperature. c. the tendency of aluminum to â€Å"rust† d. the flammability of butane fuel e. the unreactive nature of argon gas Answer: B 19. Define thermal energy. a. Energy associated with the temperature of an object. b. Energy associated with the motion of an object. c. Energy associated with the force of an object. d. Energy associated with the gravity of an object. e. Energy associated with the position of an object. Answer: A 20. Which of the following are examples of intensive properties? a. density b. volume c. mass d. None of the above are examples of intensive properties. e. All of the above are examples of intensive properties. Answer: A 21. If the temperature is 178 °F, what is the temperature in degrees celsius? a. 352 °C b. 451 °C c. 67 °C d. 81. 1 °C e. 378 °C Answer: D 22. If the temperature is 25 °C, what is the temperature in  °F? a. 45 °F b. 298. 15 °F c. 77 °F d. -3. 89 °F Answer: C 23. If the temperature is 25 °C, what is the temperature in K? a. 45 K b. 298 K c. 77 K . -3. 89 K Answer: B 24. Determine the density of an object that has a mass of 149. 8 g and displaces 12 . 1 mL of water when placed in a graduated cylinder. a. 8. 08 g/mL b. 1. 38 g/mL c. 12 . 4 g/mL d. 18. 1 g/mL e. 11. 4 g/mL Answer: C 25. A student performs an experiment to determine the density of a sugar solution. She obtains the following results: 4. 11 g/mL, 4. 81 g/mL, 4. 95 g/mL, 3. 75 g/mL. If the actual value for the density of the sugar solution is 4. 75 g/mL, which statement below best describes her results? a. Her results are precise, but not accurate. b. Her results are accurate, but not precise. . Her results are both precise and accurate d. Her results are neither precise nor accurate. e. It isn't possible to determine with the information given. Answer: D 26. Read the water level with the correct number of significant figures. a. 5 mL b. 5. 3 mL c. 5. 32 mL d. 5. 320 mL e. 5. 3200 mL Answer: B (Note: Remember, your last significant figure is the one that is uncertain. Because there are only whole number marks, the most certain significant figure is the 5, then we estimate where the meniscus of the liquid is between the 5 and the 6. This is why the correct reading is 5. 3, where the 3 is uncertain. If there were marks between the whole numbers, the correct answer would have 3 significant figures, since you could more accurately determine the volume. ) 27. Read the length of the metal bar with the correct number of significant figures. a. 20 cm b. 15 cm c. 15. 0 cm d. 15. 00 cm e. 15. 000 cm Answer: D 28. How many significant figures are in: 1009. 630 mL? a. 1009. 630 ml _____7______ b. 3. 408 x 104 m _____4_______ c. 0. 0005890 g ______4_______ 29. Complete the following calculations and report your answer with the correct number of significant figures: a. (249. 362 + 41)/63. 498 = ____4. 57________ b. 433. 621 + 0. 02 = ____433. 4_________ c. (965. 43 x 3. 911) + 9413. 4136 = ____1. 319 x 104 or 13190_____ 30. What wavelength of light would you report in units of nm, if the light had a wavelength of 7. 60 x 10-10 m? a. 7. 60 ? 10-3 nm b. 7. 60 ? 10-19 nm c. 1. 32 nm d. 0. 760 nm e. 760 nm Answer: D 31. How many cm3 are contained in 3. 77 ? 104 mm3? a. 3. 77 ? 104 cm3 b. 3. 77 ? 101 cm3 c. 3. 77 ? 10-10 cm3 d. 3. 77 ? 1020 cm3 e. 3. 77 ? 106 cm3 f. Answer: B 32. If a room requires 25. 4 square yards of carpeting, what is the area of the floor in units of ft2? (3 ft = 1 yd) a. 76. 2 ft2 b. 8. 47 ft2 c. 282 ft2 d. 229 ft2 e. 68. 6 ft2 Answer: D 33. Convert 15. km to miles. (use conversions in the back of your book. These will be given for the test a. 24. 1 miles b. 9. 32 miles c. 591 miles d. 33. 1 miles e. Answer: B 34. Gas is sold for $1. 399 per liter in Toronto, Canada. Your car needs 12. 00 gallons. How much will your credit card be charged in dollars? ( use conversions in the back of your book. These will be given for the test) a. $16. 79 b. $67. 15 c. $4. 44 d. $63. 54 Answer: D 35. Crude oil is an example of a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. a homogeneous mixture. Answer: C 3 6. NaCl is an example of a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. . a homogeneous mixture. Answer: A 37. A piece of metal ore weighs 8. 25 g. When a student places it into a graduated cylinder containing water, the liquid level rises from 21. 25 mL to 26. 47 mL. What is the density of the ore? a. 0. 312 g/mL b. 0. 633 g/mL c. 1. 58 g/mL d. 3. 21 g/mL Answer: C 38. A mass of mercury occupies 0. 950 L. What volume would an equal mass of ethanol occupy? The density of mercury is and the density of ethanol is 0. 789 g/mL. a. 0. 0553 L b. 0. 0613 L c. 16. 3 L d. 18. 1 L Answer: C 39. Round the following number to four significant figures and express the result in standard exponential notation: 229. 13 a. 0. 2296 ? 103 b. 229. 6 c. 2. 296 ? 10-2 d. 2. 296 ? 102 e. 22. 96 ? 10-1 Answer: D 40. Round off 00907506 to four significant figures. a. 0091 b. 9076 c. 9100 d. 9. 075 ? 105 Answer: D 41. The diameter of an atom is approximately 1 ? 10-10 m. What is the diameter in millimeters? a. 1 ? 10-16 mm b. 1 ? 10-13 mm c. 1 ? 10-7 mm d. 1 ? 10-4 mm Answer: C 42. How many liters of wine can be held in a wine barrel whose capacity is 26. 0 gal? 1 gal = 4 qt = 3. 7854 L. a. 1. 46 ? 10-4 b. 0. 146 c. 98. 4 d. 6. 87 ? 103 e. 6. 87 Answer: C 43. 128) How many liters of air are in a room that measures 10. 0 x 11. 0 ft and has an 8. 0 ft ceiling? 1 in. = 2. 54 cm (exactly); 1 L = 103 cm3. a. 2. 49 ? 104 b. 92. 8 c. 26. 8 d. 2. 68 ? 107 e. 8. 84 ? 105 Answer: A 44. 1) Which of the following is an example of the law of multiple proportions? a. A sample of chlorine is found to contain three times as much Cl-35 as Cl-37. b. Two different compounds formed from carbon and oxygen have the following mass ratios: 1. 33 g O: 1 g C and 2. 66 g O: 1 g C. c. Two different samples of table salt are found to have the same ratio of sodium to chlorine. d. The atomic mass of bromine is found to be 79. 90 amu. e. Nitrogen dioxide always has a mass ratio of 2. 8 g O: 1 g N. Answer: B 45. Identify the element that has an atomic number of 40. a. neon b. calcium c. zirconium d. bromine Answer: C 46. The atomic mass for cadmium is a. 48 b. 112. 41 c. 40. 08 d. 20 Answer: B 47. The mass number is equal to a. the sum of the sum of the electrons and protons. b. the sum of the sum of the neutrons and electrons. c. the sum of the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons. d. the sum of the number of protons and neutrons. Answer: D 48. What element is defined by the following information? p+ = 11n ° = 12 e- = 11 a. sodium b. vanadium c. magnesium d. titanium Answer: A 49. ) What does â€Å"X† represent in the following symbol? X a. silicon b. sulfur c. zinc d. ruthenium e. nickel Answer: A 50. 11) Determine the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the following: X a. p+ = 18n ° = 18e- = 22 b. p+ = 18n ° = 22e- = 18 c. p+ = 22n ° = 18e- = 18 d. p+ = 18n ° = 22e- = 40 e. p+ = 40 n ° = 22e- = 18 Answer: B 51. Identify a cation. a. An atom that has lost an electron. b. An atom that has gained an electron. c. An atom that has lost a proton. d. An atom that has gained a proton. Answer: A 52. What element is defined by the following information? p+ = 17n ° = 20 e- = 17 a. calcium b. rubidium c. hlorine d. neon e. oxygen Answer: C 53. What species is represented by the following information? p+ = 17 n ° = 18 e- = 18 a. Cl b. Cl- c. Ar d. Ar+ e. Kr f. Answer: B 54. Give the number of electrons for carbon-14, with a -2 charge . a. 7 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 Answer: D 55. Predict the charge that an aluminum ion would have. a. 5- b. 1+ c. 1- d. 2+ e. 3+ Answer: E 56. Predict the charge that the ion formed from bromine would have. a. 1- b. 2+ c. 1+ d. 4+ e. 2- f. Answer: A 57. Which of the following elements is NOT a metal? a. Ba b. Mg c. Xe d. Pb e. Ga Answer: C 58. Which of the following elements is a noble gas? a. Ar b. Br c. N d. O e. K Answer: A 59. Which of the following elements is an alkali metal? a. Zn b. Xe c. F d. Li e. Ca Answer: D 60. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Anions are usually larger than their corresponding atom. b. Metals tend to form cations c. Atoms are usually larger than their corresponding cation. d. The halogens tend to form 1+ ions. e. Nonmetals tend to gain electrons. Answer: D 61. Which of the following does NOT describe a nonmetal? a. Tend to gain electrons b. Found in the upper right hand corner of the periodic table. c. Poor conductor of electricity d. Nonmetals are generally unreactive. e. Poor conductor of heat. Answer: D 62. Silver has an atomic mass of 107. 868 amu. The Ag-109 isotope (108. 905 amu) is 48. 16%. What is the amu of the other isotope? a. 106. 905 amu b. 106. 908 amu c. 106. 903 amu d. D) 106. 911 amu Answer: A 63. Which of the following contains the MOST atoms? You shouldn't need to do a calculation here. a. 10. 0 g Ne b. 10. 0 g He c. 10. 0 g Ar d. 10. 0 g Kr e. 10. 0 g Mg Answer: B 64. How many silver atoms are contained in 3. 75 moles of silver? a. 6. 23 ? 1024 silver atoms b. 2. 26 ? 1024 silver atoms c. 1. 61 ? 1023 silver atoms d. 2. 44 ? 1026 silver atoms e. 6. 50 ? 1025 silver atoms Answer: B 65. How many moles of potassium are contained in 449 g of potassium? a. 11. 5 moles b. 17. 6 moles c. 69. 2 moles d. 23. 9 moles e. 41. 5 moles Answer: A 66. What mass, in kg, does 5. 84 moles of titanium (Ti) have? a. 0. 352 kg b. 0. 122 kg c. 0. 820 kg d. 0. 280 kg e. 0. 632 kg Answer: D 67. How many moles of Cs are contained in 595 kg of Cs? a. 2. 23 ? 102 moles Cs b. 4. 48 ? 103 moles Cs c. 7. 91 ? 104 moles Cs d. 1. 26 ? 103 moles Cs e. 5. 39 ? 102 moles Cs Answer: B 68. How many iron atoms are contained in 354 g of iron? a. 2. 62 ? 1025 Fe atoms b. 2. 13 ? 1026 Fe atoms c. 4. 69 ? 1024 Fe atoms d. 3. 82 ? 1024 Fe atoms . 9. 50 ? 1022 Fe atoms Answer: D 69. Calculate the mass, in kg, of 4. 87 x 1025 atoms of Zn. a. 5. 29 kg b. 1. 89 kg c. 8. 09 kg d. 1. 24 kg e. 1. 09 kg Answer: A Match the following. A) Fe B) C C) Mg D) Si E) K 70. magnesium 71. carbon 72. potassium 73. iron 74. silicon Answers: 70) C 71) B 72) E 73) A 74) D 75. Give the name of the element whose symbol is Na. Answer: sodium 76. An atom of 131Xe contains ________ electrons. a. 131 b. 185 c. 77 d. 123 e. 54 Answer: E 77. An ion has 8 protons, 9 neutrons, and 10 electrons. The symbol for the ion is ________. a. 17O2- b. 17O2+ c. 19F+ d. 19F- e. 17Ne2+ Answer: A 78. How many protons does the Br- ion possess? a. 34 b. 36 c. 6 d. 8 e. 35 Answer: E 79. Predict the charge of the most stable ion of potassium. a. 3+ b. 1- c. 2+ d. 2- e. 1+ Answer: E 80. What is the chemical symbol for mercury? a. Ag b. Au c. Hg d. Pb Answer: C 81. Which are isotopes? An atom that has an atomic number of 20 and a mass number of 42 is an isotope of an atom that has a. an atomic number of 21 and a mass number of 42. b. an atomic number of 20 and a mass number of 40. c. 22 neutrons and 20 protons. d. 22 protons and 20 neutrons. Answer: B 82. How many protons (p) and neutrons (n) are in an atom of Sr? a. 38 p, 52 n . 38 p, 90 n c. 52 p, 38 n d. 90 p, 38 n Answer: A 83. The mass number of an atom of 128Xe is ________. a. 54 b. 182 c. 74 d. 128 e. 120 Answer: D 84. What is the identity of element Q if the ion Q2+ contains 10 electrons? a. C b. O c. Ne d. Mg Answer: D 85. In which of the following sets do all species have the same number of electrons? a. F-, Ne, Mg2+ b. Ge, Se2-, Br- c. K+, Rb+, Cs+ d. Br, Br-, Br+ Answer: A 86. Argon belongs to the ________ group of the periodic table. a. alkali metal b. alkaline earth metal c. halogen d. noble gas Answer: D 87. Which of the following elements has chemical properties similar to tellurium? . fluorine b. hydrogen c. nitrogen d. sulfur Answer: D 88. An ionic bond is best described as: a. the sharing of electrons. b. the transfer of electrons from one atom to another. c. the attraction that holds the atoms together in a polyatomic ion. d. the attraction between 2 nonmetal atoms. e. the attraction between 2 metal atoms. Answer: B 89. What is the empirical formula for C4H10O2? a. C2H5O b. CHO c. C2H4O d. CHO2 e. CH2O Answer: A 90. Write a possible molecular formula for C4H4O. a. C8H8O2 b. C12H12O2 c. C2H2O d. C8H8O Answer: A 91. Which of the following is an atomic element? a. Br b. H c. N d. O e. Mg Answer: E 92. Which of the following is a molecular element? a. Kr b. Ag c. S d. Mg e. Ti Answer: C 93. Which of the following is a molecular compound? a. CuCl2 b. KCl c. NaNO3 d. CH3Cl e. RbBr f. Answer: D 94. Which of the following is an ionic compound? a. SCl2 b. Mg3(PO4)2 c. Cl2O d. CH2O e. PF5 Answer: B 95. Write the formula for the compound formed between potassium and sulfur. a. KS b. KS2 c. K2S d. K2SO3 e. K3S2 Answer: C 96. Give the name for SnO. a. tin (I) oxide b. tin (II) oxide c. tin (III) oxide d. tin (IV) oxide Answer: B 97. Write the formula for strontium nitride. a. Sr3N2 b. Sr(NO3)2 c. SrN d. Sr2N3 e. Sr(NO2)2 Answer: A 98. Write the name for Sn(SO4)2. Remember that Sn forms several ions. a. tin (I) sulfite b. tin (IV) sulfate c. tin sulfide d. tin (II) sulfite e. tin (I) sulfate Answer: B 99. Determine the name for CoCl2†¢6H2O. Remember that Co forms several ions. a. cobalt chloride hydrate b. cobalt (I) chloride heptahydrate c. cobalt (II) chloride heptahydrate d. cobalt (II) chloride hexahydrate e. cobalt (I) chloride Answer: D 100. Write the formula for copper (II) sulfate pentahydrate. a. Cu2SO3†¢H5 b. Cu2S†¢H2O c. CuS†¢5H2O d. (CuSO4)5 e. CuSO4†¢5H2O Answer: E 101. Determine the name for H2CO3. a. carbonous acid b. dihydrogen carbonate c. carbonic acid . hydrocarbonic acid e. hydrocarbide acid Answer: C 102. Identify the formula for nitric acid. a. HNO3 b. HNO2 c. HNO d. HNO4 Answer: A 103. Determine the name for P4O10. a. phosphorus (IV) oxide b. diphosphorus pentoxide c. phosphorus oxide d. phosphorus (II) oxide e. tetraphosphorus decoxide Answer: E 104. Calculate the molar mass for Mg(ClO4)2. a. 223. 21 g/mol b. 123. 76 g/mol c. 119. 52 g/mol d. 247. 52 g/mol e. 75. 76 g/mol Answer: A 105. Calculate the molar mass of Al(C2H3O2)3. a. 86. 03 g/mol b. 204. 13 g/mol c. 56. 00 g/mol d. 258. 09 g/mol e. 139. 99 g/mol Answer: B 106. How many millimoles of Ca(NO3)2 contain 4. 8 ? 1022 formula units of Ca(NO3)2? The molar mass of Ca(NO3)2 is 164. 10 g/mol. a. 12. 6 mmol Ca(NO3)2 b. 13. 0 mmol Ca(NO3)2 c. 20. 7 mmol Ca(NO3)2 d. 79. 4 mmol Ca(NO3)2 e. 57. 0 mmol Ca(NO3)2 Answer: D 107. How many C2H4 molecules are contained in 45. 8 mg of C2H4? The molar mass of C2H4 is 28. 05 g/mol. a. 9. 83 ? 1020 C2H4 molecules b. 7. 74 ? 1026 C2H4 molecules c. 2. 71 ? 1020 C2H4 molecules d. 3. 69 ? 1023 C2H4 molecules e. 4. 69 ? 1023 C2H4 molecules Answer: A 108. What is the mass of 9. 44 ? 1024 molecules of NO2? The molar mass of NO2 is 46. 01 g/mol. a. 205 g b. 294 g c. 721 g d. 341 g e. 685 g Answer: C 109. Calculate the mass percent composition of sulfur in Al2(SO4)3. a. 28. 12 % b. 9. 372 % c. 42. 73 % d. 21. 38 % e. 35. 97 % Answer: A 110. How many moles of N2O3 contain 2. 55 ? 1024 oxygen atoms? (change the molecule) a. 1. 41 moles N2O3 b. 4. 23 moles N2O3 c. 12. 7 moles N2O3 d. 7. 87 moles N2O3 e. 2. 82 moles N2O3 Answer: A 111. How many moles of PCl3 contain 3. 68 ? 1025 chlorine atoms? a. 61. 1 moles PCl3 b. 20. 4 moles PCl3 c. 16. 4 moles PCl3 d. 54. 5 moles PCl3 e. 49. 1 moles PCl3 Answer: B 112. How many sodium ions are contained in 99. 6 mg of Na2SO3? The molar mass of Na2SO3 is 126. 05 g/mol. a. 1. 52 ? 1027 sodium ions . 4. 76 ? 1020 sodium ions c. 2. 10 ? 1021 sodium ions d. 1. 05 ? 1021 sodium ions e. 9. 52 ? 1020 sodium ions Answer: E 113. Determine the volume of hexane that contains 5. 33 ? 1022 molecules of hexane. The density of hexane is 0. 6548 g/mL and its molar mass is 86. 17 g/mol. a. 8. 59 mL b. 13. 5 mL c. 7. 40 mL d. 12. 4 mL e. 11. 6 mL Answer: E 114. Determine the molecular formula of a compound that has a molar mass of 92. 0 g/mol and an empirical formula of NO2. a. N2O3 b. N3O6 c. N2O4 d. NO2 e. N2O5 Answer: C 115. Determine the empirical formula for a compound that is 36. 86% N and 63. 14% O by mass. a. NO b. N2O c. NO2 d. N2O3 e. NO3 Answer: D 116. Write a balanced equation to show the reaction of gaseous ethane with gaseous oxygen to form carbon monoxide gas and water vapor. a. 2 C2H6(g) + 7 O2(g) > 4 CO2(g) + 6 H2O(g) b. C2H6(g) + 5 O(g) > 2 CO(g) + 3 H2O(g) c. 2 C2H6(g) + 5 O2(g) > 4 CO(g) + 6 H2O(g) d. C2H6(g) + 7 O(g) > 2 CO2(g) + 3 H2O(g) e. 2 CH3(g) + 5 O(g) > 2 CO(g) + 3 H2O(g) Answer: C 117. Which of the following is one possible form of pentane? a. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 b. CH3CH=CHCH2CH3 c. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 d. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2NH2 e. CH3CH2-O-CH2CH2CH3 Answer: A 118. List the elements in a hydrocarbon Answer: hydrogen and carbon 119. What type of bonding is found in the compound OF2? a. covalent bonding b. hydrogen bonding c. ionic bonding d. metallic bonding Answer: A 120. In which set do all elements tend to form cations in binary ionic compounds? a. K, Ga, O b. Sr, Ni, Hg c. N, P, Bi d. O, Br, I Answer: B 121. Rb2S is named a. rubidium disulfide. b. rubidium sulfide. c. rubidium(II) sulfide. d. rubidium sulfur. Answer: B 122. An aqueous solution of H2S is named a. hydrosulfuric acid. b. hydrosulfurous acid. c. sulfuric acid. d. sulfurous acid. Answer: A 123. What is the molar mass of nitrogen gas? a. 14. 0 g/mol b. 28. 0 g/mol c. 6. 02 ? 1023 g/mol d. 1. 20 ? 023 g/mol Answer: B 124. What mass of carbon dioxide, C O2, contains the same number of molecules as 3. 00 g of trichlorofluoromethane, CCl3F? a. 0. 106 g b. 0. 961 g c. 1. 04 g d. 9. 37 g e. Answer: B 125. Which of the following has the greatest mass? a. 3. 88 ? 1022 molecules of O2 b. 1. 00 g of O2 c. 0. 0312 mol of O2 d. All of the above have the same mass. Answer: A 126. A sample of pure calcium fluoride with a mass of 15. 0 g contains 7. 70 g of calcium. How much calcium is contained in 40. 0 g of calcium fluoride? a. 2. 27 g b. 7. 70 g c. 15. 0 g d. 20. 5 g Answer: D 127. What is the empirical formula of a compound that is 62. % C, 10. 4% H, and 27. 5% O by mass? a. C3HO b. C6HO3 c. C6H12O2 d. C5H10O2 e. C3H6O Answer: E 128. How many oxygen atoms are there in 7. 00 g of sodium dichromate, Na2Cr2O7? a. 0. 187 oxygen atoms b. 2. 30 ? 1021 oxygen atoms c. 1. 60 ? 1022 oxygen atoms d. 1. 13 ? 1023 oxygen atoms Answer: D 129. Methane and oxygen react to form carbon dioxide and water. What mass of water is formed if 0. 80 g of methane reacts with 3. 2 g of oxygen to produce 2. 2 g of carbon dioxide? a. 1. 8 g b. 2. 2 g c. 3. 7 g d. 4. 0 g Answer: A 130. Combustion analysis of 1. 200 g of an unknown compound containing carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen produced 2. 86 g of CO2 and 1. 134 g of H2O. What is the empirical formula of the compound? a. C2H5O b. C2H5O2 c. C2H10O3 d. C3H8O2 Answer: D 131. What is the stoichiometric coefficient for oxygen when the following equation is balanced using the lowest, whole-number coefficients? _____ C2H6O (l) + _____ O2(g) > _____ CO2(g) + _____ H2O(l) a. 9 b. 7 c. 5 d. 3 Answer: D 132. Calcium phosphate reacts with sulfuric acid to form calcium sulfate and phosphoric acid. What is the coefficient for sulfuric acid when the equation is balanced using the lowest, whole-numbered coefficients? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. none of these Answer: C Chemistry 105 Practice Test: Answer Key Chem 105 PracticeTest 1Note: There will not be this many questions on your test, I just wanted to give you as much practice as possible. Also, none of these exact questions will be on the test, just similar questions. Also, make sure you can do the homework, as I may have some questions similar to the homework questions. 1. Molecules can be described as a. a mixture of two or more pure substances. b. a mixture of two or more elements that has a specific ratio between components. c. two or more atoms chemically joined together. d. a heterogeneous mixture e. a homogeneous mixture Answer: C 2. Dalton's Atomic Theory states . that all elements have several isotopes. b. that matter is composed of small indestructible particles. c. that the properties of matter are determined by the properties of atoms. d. that energy is neither created nor destroyed during a chemical reaction. e. that an atom is predominantly empty space. Answer: B 3. Which of the following represents a hypothesis? a. Sodium reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. b. Nitrogen gas is a fairly inert substance. c. Nickel has a silvery sheen. d. When a substance combusts, it combines with air. e. When wood burns, heat is given off. Answer: D 4. Which is true of a Scientific Theory (circle all that apply) a. It is an interpretation for an observation b. It is a general explanation for the manifestation and behavior of all nature c. It can be validated or invalidated by experiment and observation d. It describes why things happen Answer: B, C, and D 5. Mass (circle all that apply) a. Is dependent on location (gravity) b. Is the amount of matter in a substance and remains the same regardless of location c. can be measured by using a scale or balance d. is measured in ml Answer: B and C 6. The states of matter are a. Solid and gas b. Liquid and gas . Gas, solid, and liquid d. Gas, air, and vapor Answer: C 7. A liquid (circle all that apply) a. Has a definite volume b. Has particles that are less orderly and can move about freely c. Has particles that are tightly packed d. Has no definite volume or shape e. Answer: A and B 8. Identify dry ice as a solid, liquid, or gas. a. solid b. liquid c. gas d. both solid and liquid Answer: A 9. When a gas is cooled (circle all that apply) a. Its molecules have fewer energetic collisions b. The motion of the gas particles decrease c. The motion of gas particles increase d. Nothing happens to the gas particles Answer: A and B 10. Classify each of the following as a mixture or a pure substance: a. Carbon dioxide _____________________ b. Blood ______________________ c. Helium (He) ______________________ d. Sugar water _______________________ Answer: A-pure substance; B-mixture; C-pure substance; D-mixture 11. Choose the pure substance from the list below. a. sea water b. sugar c. air d. lemonade e. milk Answer: B 12. Choose the heterogeneous mixture from the list below. a. Gatorade b. chlorine gas c. black coffee d. chicken noodle soup e. carbon (graphite) Answer: D 13. Which of the following statements about crystalline and amorphous solids is TRUE? a. A crystalline solid is composed of atoms or molecules arranged with long-range repeating order. b. An example of a crystalline solid is glass. c. An example of an amorphous solid is table salt (NaCl). d. An amorphous solid is composed of atoms or molecules with a majority of its volume empty. e. All of the above statements are TRUE. Answer: A 14. A substance that can't be chemically broken down into simpler substances is considered to be a. a homogeneous mixture. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. compound. e. an electron. Answer: B 15. Two or more substances in variable proportions, where the composition is constant throughout are considered a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. a homogeneous mixture. e. a crystalline solid. Answer: D 16. Which of the following are examples of physical change? a. sugar is dissolved in water. b. coffee is brewed. c. dry ice sublimes. d. ice (solid water) melts. e. All of these are examples of physical change. Answer: E 17. Which of the following are examples of a chemical change? a. coffee brewing b. water boiling c. nails rusting d. alt dissolves in water e. None of the above are chemical changes. Answer: C 18. Which of the following represents a physical property? a. Sodium metal is extremely reactive with chlorine gas. b. Mercury is a silver liquid at room temperature. c. the tendency of aluminum to â€Å"rust† d. the flammability of butane fuel e. the unreactive nature of argon gas Answer: B 19. Define thermal energy. a. Energy associated with the temperature of an object. b. Energy associated with the motion of an object. c. Energy associated with the force of an object. d. Energy associated with the gravity of an object. e. Energy associated with the position of an object. Answer: A 20. Which of the following are examples of intensive properties? a. density b. volume c. mass d. None of the above are examples of intensive properties. e. All of the above are examples of intensive properties. Answer: A 21. If the temperature is 178 °F, what is the temperature in degrees celsius? a. 352 °C b. 451 °C c. 67 °C d. 81. 1 °C e. 378 °C Answer: D 22. If the temperature is 25 °C, what is the temperature in  °F? a. 45 °F b. 298. 15 °F c. 77 °F d. -3. 89 °F Answer: C 23. If the temperature is 25 °C, what is the temperature in K? a. 45 K b. 298 K c. 77 K . -3. 89 K Answer: B 24. Determine the density of an object that has a mass of 149. 8 g and displaces 12 . 1 mL of water when placed in a graduated cylinder. a. 8. 08 g/mL b. 1. 38 g/mL c. 12 . 4 g/mL d. 18. 1 g/mL e. 11. 4 g/mL Answer: C 25. A student performs an experiment to determine the density of a sugar solution. She obtains the following results: 4. 11 g/mL, 4. 81 g/mL, 4. 95 g/mL, 3. 75 g/mL. If the actual value for the density of the sugar solution is 4. 75 g/mL, which statement below best describes her results? a. Her results are precise, but not accurate. b. Her results are accurate, but not precise. . Her results are both precise and accurate d. Her results are neither precise nor accurate. e. It isn't possible to determine with the information given. Answer: D 26. Read the water level with the correct number of significant figures. a. 5 mL b. 5. 3 mL c. 5. 32 mL d. 5. 320 mL e. 5. 3200 mL Answer: B (Note: Remember, your last significant figure is the one that is uncertain. Because there are only whole number marks, the most certain significant figure is the 5, then we estimate where the meniscus of the liquid is between the 5 and the 6. This is why the correct reading is 5. 3, where the 3 is uncertain. If there were marks between the whole numbers, the correct answer would have 3 significant figures, since you could more accurately determine the volume. ) 27. Read the length of the metal bar with the correct number of significant figures. a. 20 cm b. 15 cm c. 15. 0 cm d. 15. 00 cm e. 15. 000 cm Answer: D 28. How many significant figures are in: 1009. 630 mL? a. 1009. 630 ml _____7______ b. 3. 408 x 104 m _____4_______ c. 0. 0005890 g ______4_______ 29. Complete the following calculations and report your answer with the correct number of significant figures: a. (249. 362 + 41)/63. 498 = ____4. 57________ b. 433. 621 + 0. 02 = ____433. 4_________ c. (965. 43 x 3. 911) + 9413. 4136 = ____1. 319 x 104 or 13190_____ 30. What wavelength of light would you report in units of nm, if the light had a wavelength of 7. 60 x 10-10 m? a. 7. 60 ? 10-3 nm b. 7. 60 ? 10-19 nm c. 1. 32 nm d. 0. 760 nm e. 760 nm Answer: D 31. How many cm3 are contained in 3. 77 ? 104 mm3? a. 3. 77 ? 104 cm3 b. 3. 77 ? 101 cm3 c. 3. 77 ? 10-10 cm3 d. 3. 77 ? 1020 cm3 e. 3. 77 ? 106 cm3 f. Answer: B 32. If a room requires 25. 4 square yards of carpeting, what is the area of the floor in units of ft2? (3 ft = 1 yd) a. 76. 2 ft2 b. 8. 47 ft2 c. 282 ft2 d. 229 ft2 e. 68. 6 ft2 Answer: D 33. Convert 15. km to miles. (use conversions in the back of your book. These will be given for the test a. 24. 1 miles b. 9. 32 miles c. 591 miles d. 33. 1 miles e. Answer: B 34. Gas is sold for $1. 399 per liter in Toronto, Canada. Your car needs 12. 00 gallons. How much will your credit card be charged in dollars? ( use conversions in the back of your book. These will be given for the test) a. $16. 79 b. $67. 15 c. $4. 44 d. $63. 54 Answer: D 35. Crude oil is an example of a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. a homogeneous mixture. Answer: C 3 6. NaCl is an example of a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. . a homogeneous mixture. Answer: A 37. A piece of metal ore weighs 8. 25 g. When a student places it into a graduated cylinder containing water, the liquid level rises from 21. 25 mL to 26. 47 mL. What is the density of the ore? a. 0. 312 g/mL b. 0. 633 g/mL c. 1. 58 g/mL d. 3. 21 g/mL Answer: C 38. A mass of mercury occupies 0. 950 L. What volume would an equal mass of ethanol occupy? The density of mercury is and the density of ethanol is 0. 789 g/mL. a. 0. 0553 L b. 0. 0613 L c. 16. 3 L d. 18. 1 L Answer: C 39. Round the following number to four significant figures and express the result in standard exponential notation: 229. 13 a. 0. 2296 ? 103 b. 229. 6 c. 2. 296 ? 10-2 d. 2. 296 ? 102 e. 22. 96 ? 10-1 Answer: D 40. Round off 00907506 to four significant figures. a. 0091 b. 9076 c. 9100 d. 9. 075 ? 105 Answer: D 41. The diameter of an atom is approximately 1 ? 10-10 m. What is the diameter in millimeters? a. 1 ? 10-16 mm b. 1 ? 10-13 mm c. 1 ? 10-7 mm d. 1 ? 10-4 mm Answer: C 42. How many liters of wine can be held in a wine barrel whose capacity is 26. 0 gal? 1 gal = 4 qt = 3. 7854 L. a. 1. 46 ? 10-4 b. 0. 146 c. 98. 4 d. 6. 87 ? 103 e. 6. 87 Answer: C 43. 128) How many liters of air are in a room that measures 10. 0 x 11. 0 ft and has an 8. 0 ft ceiling? 1 in. = 2. 54 cm (exactly); 1 L = 103 cm3. a. 2. 49 ? 104 b. 92. 8 c. 26. 8 d. 2. 68 ? 107 e. 8. 84 ? 105 Answer: A 44. 1) Which of the following is an example of the law of multiple proportions? a. A sample of chlorine is found to contain three times as much Cl-35 as Cl-37. b. Two different compounds formed from carbon and oxygen have the following mass ratios: 1. 33 g O: 1 g C and 2. 66 g O: 1 g C. c. Two different samples of table salt are found to have the same ratio of sodium to chlorine. d. The atomic mass of bromine is found to be 79. 90 amu. e. Nitrogen dioxide always has a mass ratio of 2. 8 g O: 1 g N. Answer: B 45. Identify the element that has an atomic number of 40. a. neon b. calcium c. zirconium d. bromine Answer: C 46. The atomic mass for cadmium is a. 48 b. 112. 41 c. 40. 08 d. 20 Answer: B 47. The mass number is equal to a. the sum of the sum of the electrons and protons. b. the sum of the sum of the neutrons and electrons. c. the sum of the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons. d. the sum of the number of protons and neutrons. Answer: D 48. What element is defined by the following information? p+ = 11n ° = 12 e- = 11 a. sodium b. vanadium c. magnesium d. titanium Answer: A 49. ) What does â€Å"X† represent in the following symbol? X a. silicon b. sulfur c. zinc d. ruthenium e. nickel Answer: A 50. 11) Determine the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the following: X a. p+ = 18n ° = 18e- = 22 b. p+ = 18n ° = 22e- = 18 c. p+ = 22n ° = 18e- = 18 d. p+ = 18n ° = 22e- = 40 e. p+ = 40 n ° = 22e- = 18 Answer: B 51. Identify a cation. a. An atom that has lost an electron. b. An atom that has gained an electron. c. An atom that has lost a proton. d. An atom that has gained a proton. Answer: A 52. What element is defined by the following information? p+ = 17n ° = 20 e- = 17 a. calcium b. rubidium c. hlorine d. neon e. oxygen Answer: C 53. What species is represented by the following information? p+ = 17 n ° = 18 e- = 18 a. Cl b. Cl- c. Ar d. Ar+ e. Kr f. Answer: B 54. Give the number of electrons for carbon-14, with a -2 charge . a. 7 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 Answer: D 55. Predict the charge that an aluminum ion would have. a. 5- b. 1+ c. 1- d. 2+ e. 3+ Answer: E 56. Predict the charge that the ion formed from bromine would have. a. 1- b. 2+ c. 1+ d. 4+ e. 2- f. Answer: A 57. Which of the following elements is NOT a metal? a. Ba b. Mg c. Xe d. Pb e. Ga Answer: C 58. Which of the following elements is a noble gas? a. Ar b. Br c. N d. O e. K Answer: A 59. Which of the following elements is an alkali metal? a. Zn b. Xe c. F d. Li e. Ca Answer: D 60. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Anions are usually larger than their corresponding atom. b. Metals tend to form cations c. Atoms are usually larger than their corresponding cation. d. The halogens tend to form 1+ ions. e. Nonmetals tend to gain electrons. Answer: D 61. Which of the following does NOT describe a nonmetal? a. Tend to gain electrons b. Found in the upper right hand corner of the periodic table. c. Poor conductor of electricity d. Nonmetals are generally unreactive. e. Poor conductor of heat. Answer: D 62. Silver has an atomic mass of 107. 868 amu. The Ag-109 isotope (108. 905 amu) is 48. 16%. What is the amu of the other isotope? a. 106. 905 amu b. 106. 908 amu c. 106. 903 amu d. D) 106. 911 amu Answer: A 63. Which of the following contains the MOST atoms? You shouldn't need to do a calculation here. a. 10. 0 g Ne b. 10. 0 g He c. 10. 0 g Ar d. 10. 0 g Kr e. 10. 0 g Mg Answer: B 64. How many silver atoms are contained in 3. 75 moles of silver? a. 6. 23 ? 1024 silver atoms b. 2. 26 ? 1024 silver atoms c. 1. 61 ? 1023 silver atoms d. 2. 44 ? 1026 silver atoms e. 6. 50 ? 1025 silver atoms Answer: B 65. How many moles of potassium are contained in 449 g of potassium? a. 11. 5 moles b. 17. 6 moles c. 69. 2 moles d. 23. 9 moles e. 41. 5 moles Answer: A 66. What mass, in kg, does 5. 84 moles of titanium (Ti) have? a. 0. 352 kg b. 0. 122 kg c. 0. 820 kg d. 0. 280 kg e. 0. 632 kg Answer: D 67. How many moles of Cs are contained in 595 kg of Cs? a. 2. 23 ? 102 moles Cs b. 4. 48 ? 103 moles Cs c. 7. 91 ? 104 moles Cs d. 1. 26 ? 103 moles Cs e. 5. 39 ? 102 moles Cs Answer: B 68. How many iron atoms are contained in 354 g of iron? a. 2. 62 ? 1025 Fe atoms b. 2. 13 ? 1026 Fe atoms c. 4. 69 ? 1024 Fe atoms d. 3. 82 ? 1024 Fe atoms . 9. 50 ? 1022 Fe atoms Answer: D 69. Calculate the mass, in kg, of 4. 87 x 1025 atoms of Zn. a. 5. 29 kg b. 1. 89 kg c. 8. 09 kg d. 1. 24 kg e. 1. 09 kg Answer: A Match the following. A) Fe B) C C) Mg D) Si E) K 70. magnesium 71. carbon 72. potassium 73. iron 74. silicon Answers: 70) C 71) B 72) E 73) A 74) D 75. Give the name of the element whose symbol is Na. Answer: sodium 76. An atom of 131Xe contains ________ electrons. a. 131 b. 185 c. 77 d. 123 e. 54 Answer: E 77. An ion has 8 protons, 9 neutrons, and 10 electrons. The symbol for the ion is ________. a. 17O2- b. 17O2+ c. 19F+ d. 19F- e. 17Ne2+ Answer: A 78. How many protons does the Br- ion possess? a. 34 b. 36 c. 6 d. 8 e. 35 Answer: E 79. Predict the charge of the most stable ion of potassium. a. 3+ b. 1- c. 2+ d. 2- e. 1+ Answer: E 80. What is the chemical symbol for mercury? a. Ag b. Au c. Hg d. Pb Answer: C 81. Which are isotopes? An atom that has an atomic number of 20 and a mass number of 42 is an isotope of an atom that has a. an atomic number of 21 and a mass number of 42. b. an atomic number of 20 and a mass number of 40. c. 22 neutrons and 20 protons. d. 22 protons and 20 neutrons. Answer: B 82. How many protons (p) and neutrons (n) are in an atom of Sr? a. 38 p, 52 n . 38 p, 90 n c. 52 p, 38 n d. 90 p, 38 n Answer: A 83. The mass number of an atom of 128Xe is ________. a. 54 b. 182 c. 74 d. 128 e. 120 Answer: D 84. What is the identity of element Q if the ion Q2+ contains 10 electrons? a. C b. O c. Ne d. Mg Answer: D 85. In which of the following sets do all species have the same number of electrons? a. F-, Ne, Mg2+ b. Ge, Se2-, Br- c. K+, Rb+, Cs+ d. Br, Br-, Br+ Answer: A 86. Argon belongs to the ________ group of the periodic table. a. alkali metal b. alkaline earth metal c. halogen d. noble gas Answer: D 87. Which of the following elements has chemical properties similar to tellurium? . fluorine b. hydrogen c. nitrogen d. sulfur Answer: D 88. An ionic bond is best described as: a. the sharing of electrons. b. the transfer of electrons from one atom to another. c. the attraction that holds the atoms together in a polyatomic ion. d. the attraction between 2 nonmetal atoms. e. the attraction between 2 metal atoms. Answer: B 89. What is the empirical formula for C4H10O2? a. C2H5O b. CHO c. C2H4O d. CHO2 e. CH2O Answer: A 90. Write a possible molecular formula for C4H4O. a. C8H8O2 b. C12H12O2 c. C2H2O d. C8H8O Answer: A 91. Which of the following is an atomic element? a. Br b. H c. N d. O e. Mg Answer: E 92. Which of the following is a molecular element? a. Kr b. Ag c. S d. Mg e. Ti Answer: C 93. Which of the following is a molecular compound? a. CuCl2 b. KCl c. NaNO3 d. CH3Cl e. RbBr f. Answer: D 94. Which of the following is an ionic compound? a. SCl2 b. Mg3(PO4)2 c. Cl2O d. CH2O e. PF5 Answer: B 95. Write the formula for the compound formed between potassium and sulfur. a. KS b. KS2 c. K2S d. K2SO3 e. K3S2 Answer: C 96. Give the name for SnO. a. tin (I) oxide b. tin (II) oxide c. tin (III) oxide d. tin (IV) oxide Answer: B 97. Write the formula for strontium nitride. a. Sr3N2 b. Sr(NO3)2 c. SrN d. Sr2N3 e. Sr(NO2)2 Answer: A 98. Write the name for Sn(SO4)2. Remember that Sn forms several ions. a. tin (I) sulfite b. tin (IV) sulfate c. tin sulfide d. tin (II) sulfite e. tin (I) sulfate Answer: B 99. Determine the name for CoCl2†¢6H2O. Remember that Co forms several ions. a. cobalt chloride hydrate b. cobalt (I) chloride heptahydrate c. cobalt (II) chloride heptahydrate d. cobalt (II) chloride hexahydrate e. cobalt (I) chloride Answer: D 100. Write the formula for copper (II) sulfate pentahydrate. a. Cu2SO3†¢H5 b. Cu2S†¢H2O c. CuS†¢5H2O d. (CuSO4)5 e. CuSO4†¢5H2O Answer: E 101. Determine the name for H2CO3. a. carbonous acid b. dihydrogen carbonate c. carbonic acid . hydrocarbonic acid e. hydrocarbide acid Answer: C 102. Identify the formula for nitric acid. a. HNO3 b. HNO2 c. HNO d. HNO4 Answer: A 103. Determine the name for P4O10. a. phosphorus (IV) oxide b. diphosphorus pentoxide c. phosphorus oxide d. phosphorus (II) oxide e. tetraphosphorus decoxide Answer: E 104. Calculate the molar mass for Mg(ClO4)2. a. 223. 21 g/mol b. 123. 76 g/mol c. 119. 52 g/mol d. 247. 52 g/mol e. 75. 76 g/mol Answer: A 105. Calculate the molar mass of Al(C2H3O2)3. a. 86. 03 g/mol b. 204. 13 g/mol c. 56. 00 g/mol d. 258. 09 g/mol e. 139. 99 g/mol Answer: B 106. How many millimoles of Ca(NO3)2 contain 4. 8 ? 1022 formula units of Ca(NO3)2? The molar mass of Ca(NO3)2 is 164. 10 g/mol. a. 12. 6 mmol Ca(NO3)2 b. 13. 0 mmol Ca(NO3)2 c. 20. 7 mmol Ca(NO3)2 d. 79. 4 mmol Ca(NO3)2 e. 57. 0 mmol Ca(NO3)2 Answer: D 107. How many C2H4 molecules are contained in 45. 8 mg of C2H4? The molar mass of C2H4 is 28. 05 g/mol. a. 9. 83 ? 1020 C2H4 molecules b. 7. 74 ? 1026 C2H4 molecules c. 2. 71 ? 1020 C2H4 molecules d. 3. 69 ? 1023 C2H4 molecules e. 4. 69 ? 1023 C2H4 molecules Answer: A 108. What is the mass of 9. 44 ? 1024 molecules of NO2? The molar mass of NO2 is 46. 01 g/mol. a. 205 g b. 294 g c. 721 g d. 341 g e. 685 g Answer: C 109. Calculate the mass percent composition of sulfur in Al2(SO4)3. a. 28. 12 % b. 9. 372 % c. 42. 73 % d. 21. 38 % e. 35. 97 % Answer: A 110. How many moles of N2O3 contain 2. 55 ? 1024 oxygen atoms? (change the molecule) a. 1. 41 moles N2O3 b. 4. 23 moles N2O3 c. 12. 7 moles N2O3 d. 7. 87 moles N2O3 e. 2. 82 moles N2O3 Answer: A 111. How many moles of PCl3 contain 3. 68 ? 1025 chlorine atoms? a. 61. 1 moles PCl3 b. 20. 4 moles PCl3 c. 16. 4 moles PCl3 d. 54. 5 moles PCl3 e. 49. 1 moles PCl3 Answer: B 112. How many sodium ions are contained in 99. 6 mg of Na2SO3? The molar mass of Na2SO3 is 126. 05 g/mol. a. 1. 52 ? 1027 sodium ions . 4. 76 ? 1020 sodium ions c. 2. 10 ? 1021 sodium ions d. 1. 05 ? 1021 sodium ions e. 9. 52 ? 1020 sodium ions Answer: E 113. Determine the volume of hexane that contains 5. 33 ? 1022 molecules of hexane. The density of hexane is 0. 6548 g/mL and its molar mass is 86. 17 g/mol. a. 8. 59 mL b. 13. 5 mL c. 7. 40 mL d. 12. 4 mL e. 11. 6 mL Answer: E 114. Determine the molecular formula of a compound that has a molar mass of 92. 0 g/mol and an empirical formula of NO2. a. N2O3 b. N3O6 c. N2O4 d. NO2 e. N2O5 Answer: C 115. Determine the empirical formula for a compound that is 36. 86% N and 63. 14% O by mass. a. NO b. N2O c. NO2 d. N2O3 e. NO3 Answer: D 116. Write a balanced equation to show the reaction of gaseous ethane with gaseous oxygen to form carbon monoxide gas and water vapor. a. 2 C2H6(g) + 7 O2(g) > 4 CO2(g) + 6 H2O(g) b. C2H6(g) + 5 O(g) > 2 CO(g) + 3 H2O(g) c. 2 C2H6(g) + 5 O2(g) > 4 CO(g) + 6 H2O(g) d. C2H6(g) + 7 O(g) > 2 CO2(g) + 3 H2O(g) e. 2 CH3(g) + 5 O(g) > 2 CO(g) + 3 H2O(g) Answer: C 117. Which of the following is one possible form of pentane? a. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 b. CH3CH=CHCH2CH3 c. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 d. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2NH2 e. CH3CH2-O-CH2CH2CH3 Answer: A 118. List the elements in a hydrocarbon Answer: hydrogen and carbon 119. What type of bonding is found in the compound OF2? a. covalent bonding b. hydrogen bonding c. ionic bonding d. metallic bonding Answer: A 120. In which set do all elements tend to form cations in binary ionic compounds? a. K, Ga, O b. Sr, Ni, Hg c. N, P, Bi d. O, Br, I Answer: B 121. Rb2S is named a. rubidium disulfide. b. rubidium sulfide. c. rubidium(II) sulfide. d. rubidium sulfur. Answer: B 122. An aqueous solution of H2S is named a. hydrosulfuric acid. b. hydrosulfurous acid. c. sulfuric acid. d. sulfurous acid. Answer: A 123. What is the molar mass of nitrogen gas? a. 14. 0 g/mol b. 28. 0 g/mol c. 6. 02 ? 1023 g/mol d. 1. 20 ? 023 g/mol Answer: B 124. What mass of carbon dioxide, C O2, contains the same number of molecules as 3. 00 g of trichlorofluoromethane, CCl3F? a. 0. 106 g b. 0. 961 g c. 1. 04 g d. 9. 37 g e. Answer: B 125. Which of the following has the greatest mass? a. 3. 88 ? 1022 molecules of O2 b. 1. 00 g of O2 c. 0. 0312 mol of O2 d. All of the above have the same mass. Answer: A 126. A sample of pure calcium fluoride with a mass of 15. 0 g contains 7. 70 g of calcium. How much calcium is contained in 40. 0 g of calcium fluoride? a. 2. 27 g b. 7. 70 g c. 15. 0 g d. 20. 5 g Answer: D 127. What is the empirical formula of a compound that is 62. % C, 10. 4% H, and 27. 5% O by mass? a. C3HO b. C6HO3 c. C6H12O2 d. C5H10O2 e. C3H6O Answer: E 128. How many oxygen atoms are there in 7. 00 g of sodium dichromate, Na2Cr2O7? a. 0. 187 oxygen atoms b. 2. 30 ? 1021 oxygen atoms c. 1. 60 ? 1022 oxygen atoms d. 1. 13 ? 1023 oxygen atoms Answer: D 129. Methane and oxygen react to form carbon dioxide and water. What mass of water is formed if 0. 80 g of methane reacts with 3. 2 g of oxygen to produce 2. 2 g of carbon dioxide? a. 1. 8 g b. 2. 2 g c. 3. 7 g d. 4. 0 g Answer: A 130. Combustion analysis of 1. 200 g of an unknown compound containing carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen produced 2. 86 g of CO2 and 1. 134 g of H2O. What is the empirical formula of the compound? a. C2H5O b. C2H5O2 c. C2H10O3 d. C3H8O2 Answer: D 131. What is the stoichiometric coefficient for oxygen when the following equation is balanced using the lowest, whole-number coefficients? _____ C2H6O (l) + _____ O2(g) > _____ CO2(g) + _____ H2O(l) a. 9 b. 7 c. 5 d. 3 Answer: D 132. Calcium phosphate reacts with sulfuric acid to form calcium sulfate and phosphoric acid. What is the coefficient for sulfuric acid when the equation is balanced using the lowest, whole-numbered coefficients? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. none of these Answer: C