To Open a Pandoras Box

To Open a Pandoras Box To Open a Pandoras Box To Open a Pandoras Box By Maeve Maddox Ive found an expression that annoys me more than deja vu all over again. Its a box of Pandoras. Denmark has tumbled into a box of Pandoras. Meryl may regret having opened this whole box of Pandoras (language site, discussion of the difference between can and may) My, I do seem to have opened a can of worms (or a box of Pandoras) here. (the topic is the music of Chopin.) In many places the expression is attributed to former governor of New Mexico Bruce King: His [Kings] most famous malapropism, frequently repeated by legislators during floor debates, was the time King said that a legislative proposal would open a whole box of Pandoras. (Santa Fe-New Mexican, Nov. 14, 2009) Ive also seen it attributed to Casey Stengel, Al Gore, former Arkansas Governor Frank White, and former Washington D.C. mayor Marion Barry. Ideas about nature are famously malleable. Try to take just a peek, and Shazamm!you have opened what Casey Stengal [sic] once called A Box of Pandoras. (excerpt at Amazon from a published book about Nature) We dont want to open up a box of Pandoras. Vice-President Albert Gore, Jr. (comment at a site called TruckNet) â€Å"We dont want to open a box of Pandoras.† That was said by Marion Barry, the former mayor of Washington, D.C. He was referring to the Greek Pandoras’ Box. (a blog called Dahn Batchelors opinions) As former Gov. Frank White of Arkansas once put it, the president thus opened a whole box of Pandoras. (article by Frank Perly at WashingtonTimes.com, May 18, 2010) The expression to open a Pandoras box has long been used to describe an act that may have unforeseen and unpleasant consequences. It derives from a Greek myth in which the woman Pandora, driven by curiosity, opens a jar (or a box) containing various human evils, unintentionally loosing them on the world. The distortion to open a box of Pandoras may owe its galloping popularity to its similarity to opening a can of worms. As a figurative expression, opening a box of Pandoras may have sounded amusing the first time it was used, but as an ongoing expression it gets old fast. NOTE: the word Pandora on its own enjoys a huge popularity as a product name and in other contexts. Someone opening a delivery of electronic gadgets might have reason to declare that he was opening a box of Pandoras. Want to improve your English in five minutes a day? Get a subscription and start receiving our writing tips and exercises daily! Keep learning! Browse the Misused Words category, check our popular posts, or choose a related post below:100 Words for Facial ExpressionsUse a Dash for Number Ranges5 Ways to Reduce Use of Prepositions

7 Reasons to Become an Occupational Therapy Assistant

7 Reasons to Become an Occupational Therapy Assistant You might be familiar with what an occupational therapist does, but you might not be aware of what an occupational therapy assistant does- or even that such a position exists. But this crucial role does exist and open positions are actually on the rise across the country. It’s one of the most in-demand jobs out there in the health care field. If you still need convincing, here are a few of the many great reasons to become a certified occupational therapy assistant (COTA).1. Increasing Quality of LifeMost people don’t value their ability to do the normal day-to-day functions; they just do them. Occupational therapy assistants help patients who have been injured, disabled, or otherwise lost function through age or disease. And when their patients are able to perform even the most basic functions- which contribute so much to quality of life- it is a major victory. Their contributions are enormous in people’s lives and help them rebuild confidence and meaning in thei r lives.2. Working with the Whole PersonPlenty of health care professionals don’t have the kind of quality time to deal with their patients as people. COTAs, on the other hand, have a special patient-provider relationship that deepens and develops over time. They get to watch their patients do something today that they couldn’t do yesterday, and keep helping them to better their daily lives.3. Working with AnyoneCOTAs are not restricted to working only with one age group. They’re able to work with pediatrics, geriatrics, and everything in between. For sheer diversity of clients, this job cannot be beat.4. Responsibility and OversightA lot of jobs give you tons of responsibility, but very little oversight. COTAs work closely with OTs, which means they almost always have help, while still directing much of their own one-on-one work with their patients.5. Creative PotentialAn OTA never finds their job dull. It requires a great deal of creative thinking and guarante es that no two days will be the same. There are even a wide range of toys and smartphone apps to help both patient and provider.6. High DemandOTAs are in high demand. Nearly 80% of OTAs find a job within six months of graduating from a program. You can usually find work with just an associate’s degree, and salaries are on the rise.7. Low StressNot only is there great job security in this field, with COTA roles growing faster than the national average, the day-to-day work remains rather low-stress in comparison with other health care jobs. And is overwhelmingly rewarding.

Deregulation of Electricity Markets Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1000 words

Deregulation of Electricity Markets - Essay Example The regional markets for electricity generation and distribution typically resemble monopolistic markets with few suppliers. However, they have been under the variety of controls imposed by the concerned state in which they operated. These controls had more of social objectives than the commercial objectives. Such social objectives included ensuring uninterrupted power supply at the affordable price for the general consumer. Take for instance the case of California. In the state of California he three monopolistic power suppliers was regulated by the State commission.Kunnapallil(Centre) describes this scenario as follows, â€Å"California’s electricity industry was vertically integrated and organized around three regulated private monopolies or investor-owned Utilities (IOUs): Pacific Gas & Electric Company (PG&E), Southern California Edison Company (SCE), and San Diego Gas & Electric Company (SDG&E).These companies owned and operated everything from generation, transmission, and distribution and catered to the electricity needs of consumers in their exclusive franchise areas. California Public Utilities Commission (CPUC), an independent state regulatory agency, heavily regulated the prices, costs, and service obligations of these. These three companies together supplied three-fourths of the total consumption†. In the early 1990s, Californian polity came to the realization that its electricity markets were so heavily regulated that the productions process had become inefficient and the producers were passing on merrily the high cost of production to the customers.California cost of electricity was one of the highest in the US at the time. As Beder (2001) states, â€Å"Before deregulation the Californian government set electricity rates and guaranteed the private utilities a set return on their investment. But it was argued that this provided no incentive for the utilities to cut costs. Prices were high compared to some other states, mainly because of cost overruns of billions of dollars on two nuclear power plants.  Ã‚  

Punishment Term Paper Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1250 words

Punishment - Term Paper Example They can be fined, incarcerated or sentenced to death for the gravest offences in some countries such as the US, Japan, China and the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia among others. Corporal punishment is applied by teachers and parents in schools and in the family setting to encourage good behavior among children. The issue of punishment usually raises concerns in regard to the different understanding and application of punishment across different spheres in the society. Contentions arise in trying to determine the standards for determining the severity of a moral violation, and the punishment that fits it. This paper presents a critique of the moral principles that might be used to determine the match between moral violation and punishment. Hart postulated some elements that may be used to justify punishment. For example, he argues that the punishment has to be for an offence that is contrary to the set of laws in a particular state and also has to be enforced and undertaken by an authority that is defined by a legal system, which the offender is in breach of (qtd. in Sverdlik, 180). This indicates that the punishment should only be based on particular rules that have been set and therefore punishment for offences that are beyond the legally known rules is not justifiable. This argument leaves teachers and parents in a position whereby they are not justified in regard to the punishments that they give to children. They punish the children depending on their perception regarding what is right or wrong. The appropriateness of the punishment is usually not clear and the legality of punishments in schools as well as at home is disputable. The same case applies in the punishments meted out on individuals who engage in antis ocial behaviors in the society. For instance, mob justice is one of the punishments that the public resorts to after catching a suspected criminal. The punishment that

Of Mice and Men - Discuss the themes in the play Essay Example for Free

Of Mice and Men Discuss the themes in the play Essay By themes, I mean the ideas, which the author is trying to give us. Most authors do not write just for fun, but to show us that there is a message that they would like us to learn behind the plot. Usually the ideas are ones that the author believes in deeply. The themes are under the following headings: * Loneliness Loneliness affects many of the characters, and Steinbeck seems to show that it is a natural result of the kind of life they are forced to lead. The workers are caught in a trap of loneliness they never stay in one place long enough to form long lasting relationships. Even if the relationships existed, they would probably be destroyed by the demands of their life. Candy is lonely because he is old, and is different from the other hands. His only comfort is his old dog, which keeps him company and reminds him of days when he was young and whole. He has no relatives, and once his dog is killed he is totally alone. He eagerly grasps at the idea of buying a farm with George and Lennie, but of course this all comes to nothing. Candys disappointment is shown in the bitter words he utters to the body of Curleys wife, who he blames for spoiling his dream. George is also caught in the trap of loneliness. Just as Candy has his dog for company, George has Lennie (who is often described in animal-like terms). George too is left completely alone when Lennie is killed. The dream farm is his idea, and he says Wed belong there no more runnin around the country Another lonely character is Curleys wife. Newly married and in a strange place, she is forbidden by Curley to talk to anyone but him. She constantly approaches the ranch hands on the excuse of looking for Curley. The only result is that the men regard her as a slut, and Curley becomes even more intensely jealous. Finally, her loneliness leads to her death as she makes the mistake of trying to defeat it by playing with Lennie. Curley himself is lonely. His new wife hates him, as do all the ranch hands who dislike him for his cowardice. He has married, to try and escape his loneliness, but has chosen a wife totally inappropriate for the kind of life he desires. His feelings are all of aggressive behaviour, which places his wife further away from him and leads to the incident with Lennie where his hand is crushed. Crooks is another who is isolated because he is different. He copes with it by keeping a distance between himself and the other hands. When he does allow himself to be drawn into the dream of working on George and Lennies dream farm, he is immediately shut out by Georges anger. * Violence The story has many examples of a kind of needless violence. For example, Candy relates how the boss gave them whisky and allowed a fight to take place in the bunkhouse. Curley is the most obvious violent character, and whenever he appears there is a feeling of tension. He causes George to remarkwhat the hells he got on his shoulder. Candy explains that Curley often picks on big guys (a sure sign of trouble for Lennie). We are prepared for Curleys later anger, which adds up at the end in his wish to shoot him in the guts. Carlson is another character associated with violence. He is unconcerned about killing Candys dog (and in fact cleans the gun in Candys presence). He goes to watch the fun when Curley thinks Slim may be with his wife, and later threatens Curley more, saying kick your head off. Later he is very keen to get his gun to join in the hunt for Lennie. The last words in the book belong to Carlson, and it is little surprise that they reveal his complete inability to understand Georges feelings about the death of Lennie. Compared to the other characters, Lennie reveals an unintentional violence. He does not even think to fight back when Curley attacks him, but when he does, it is with immense and uncontrollable power. He has so little control over his own strength that he accidentally kills his puppy, and then minutes later snuffs out the life of Curleys wife. His actions on these occasions are compared to those of an animal, powerful but thoughtless. Curleys wife is attracted to him because of the violence he had shown in crushing her husbands hand. It is the threat of violence to be used against Lennie that causes George to take the final step of killing his friend. * Dreams Dreams are one of the ways in which the characters fight the loneliness and hopelessness of their day to day lives. The most obvious example is the dream farm, a dream shared at first only by George and Lennie, but which later spreads to include Candy and Crooks. Crooks reveals that it is the favourite dream of the ranchers: Seems like ever guy got land in his head. It is a powerful dream, and even Crooks falls under its spell for a short time. To Lennie, the dream is a cure to disappointment and loneliness, and he often asks George to say the description of the farm to him again. Curleys wife is another who has dreams, her fantasies of a part in the movies and a life of luxury. Part of her sadness with her life is that it can never measure up to her dreams. But, none of the characters ever achieve their dreams. * Nature Steinbeck shows that nature is a beautiful and peaceful place, but threatened by the actions of men. The beginning of the story sets this pattern, as the creatures at the pool are disturbed by George and Lennies approach. The ranch and its buildings, being created by men, are in contrast with the natural world. For example the bunkhouse is quite bare and stark. Even more unnatural is that Candy and Crooks are either deformed in appearance. Contrasted to these two characters is Lennie, who almost seems a part of the natural world as he is described in animal terms. In fact, one of Lennies dreams is to go and live by himself in a cave. Maybe this would be the only way in which the natural world of Lennie would not come into conflict with the world of men.. Steinbeck referred to this story as a play/novel, and we are shown how closely it does resemble a play. Each section or chapter is set in a clearly defined place like a scene in a play. The beginning of each section contains detailed description, like stage directions in a play, while the rest of each section is mostly dialogue. This may seem like a rather unreal way to write a novel, but Steinbeck does it so well that we do not notice. A noticeable feature of the language of the novel is what a critic might call economy. One result of this is that almost every sentence is important in one way or another, either in developing a character, moving the plot forward or hinting at action still to come. Steinbeck has skilfully created a number of parallel events into the story. Candy and his dog provide a parallel to George and Lennie. And also, when Lennie kills Curleys wife, it echoes his earlier killing of the puppy. There are many such echoes and parallels in the book. Steinbeck has also shown us the way in which capturing the spoken language of the characters gives a better feel to the story. Most of them are uneducated, and this shows through in their use of broken and slang language. Even their uneducated pronunciation has been shown Steinbeck also uses colours and sounds to great effect. For example, Curleys wife is associated with red, symbolic of danger or passion perhaps. A further strong association is that of Lennie with animals. At various times he is described as a bull, a bear and a dog. Even when not directly compared with an animal, he is described in animal terms. For example, his hand is a paw. This is particularly appropriate for Lennie, as he usually acts in the simple, natural way of an animal. Soledad is a real place in California and its name can mean loneliness or a lonely place. A cue to one of the major themes of the novel right at the beginning.

The Suez Canal :: History Historical Essays

The Suez Canal Count Ferdinand de Lesseps, a Frenchman had long dreamed of a canal that pierced the Isthmus. For most of his life, this was simply a dream. He had made a living for himself by holding political positions in Tunis, Egypt, Rotterdam, Malaga, and Barcelona; had been minister at Madrid, and, finally, at Rome. Something about Egypt had struck him in a way that never truly let go. After roughly twenty five years of service, the French government notified Lesseps that what he was doing in Rome was not being supported. Lesseps managed to quell the problem in 1849, but the experience had left a distasteful mark on him that he couldn’t resolve. This led to his resignation from the service, and into retirement at the age of fifty. Now with the end of his career, he was free in a way that he hadn’t been in a long time. His thoughts again and more frequently drifted to Egypt. What once a dream, was now a possibility. Using connections he had made in Egypt during his time in the service, he made contact with them and immediately following their positive response embarked on a trip to investigate his ever more possible dream. The construction of this project faced formidable opposition. Lesseps appealed to Napoleon for help. Napoleon agreed, and helped put the wheels of this project in motion. It was not until 1869 that the canal was finally opened its one hundred mile stretch completely. It was again modified in 1885 substantially to further increased efficiency. The idea behind the Suez Canal was not invented for the first time in the 19th century. It actually dates back to Ancient Egypt and the Pharos. The Pharos went as Far as building smaller canals in the Nile delta in the Red sea. The first Canal to be excavated is linked strongly by evidence to the Pharaoh Necho in the 6th century BC. During the Persian invasion of Egypt, King Darius gave instructions for a canal to be built which started in the Gulf of Suez and ran to the Bitter Lake. The second part of the canal ran from the Bitter Lake to the Nile delta. This canal was known as the Red Sea Canal. This canal fell into disrepair, but was rectified by the Roman Emperor Trajan, and yet again by the Arab king Amr Ibn-Al-Aas.

The National Forest Management Act

Writing Assignment Resource Management Policy The National Forest Management Act (NFMA) of 1976 is a federal law that reorganized, expanded and amended the Forest and Rangeland Renewable Resources Planning Act of 1974, which called for the management of renewable resources on national forest lands. The National Forest Management Act requires the Secretary of Agriculture to assess forest lands, develop a management program based on multiple-use, sustained-yield principles, and implement a resource management plan for each unit of the National Forest System.It is the primary statute governing the administration of national forests. The NFMA had a particular focus in regulating when, where, and how much timber could be harvested and in requiring public involvement in preparing and revising the plans. In 1982 the NFMA published the Planning Regulations, a process that planned to integrate the many interests concerning the forests. There are ten major steps to this process.Identify issues , concerns, and opportunities (ICOs); Develop planning criteria; Collect data and information necessary to address ICOs; Analyze the management situation (AMS); Formulate a broad range of alternatives including a ‘no action, alternative; Estimate the effects of each alternative on the environment, the economy, and society; Evaluate alternatives by comparing how well each resolves the ICOs; Select a preferred alternative; Implement the plan by updating all uses of the forest into conformity of the forest plan; and monitor and evaluate the plan by comparing the actual biological effects of the plan to the projections.The NFMA has started many legal suits regarding the degree of involvement required by both the forest service and the public, but the most famous was the Ohio Forestry Association v. Sierra Club. The Sierra Club claimed that the logging practices allowed in the Wayne National Forest in Southeast Ohio were unlawful under NFMA because the Act requires ongoing input an d management from the Forest Service.The Court rejected the claims of the Sierra Club and stated the Forest Service is not an agency required to perform ongoing action or involvement in the forest plans. BIBLIOGRAPHY: * Pegg, J. r. â€Å"Bush Converts National Forest Management to Corporate Model. †Ã‚  Environment News Service. Web. 14 Nov. 2011. ;http://www. ens-newswire. com/ens/dec2004/2004-12-23-10. html;. * â€Å"National Forest Management Act of 1976. †Ã‚  Wikipedia, the Free Encyclopedia. Web. 14 Nov. 2011. ;http://en. wikipedia. org/wiki/National_Forest_Management_Act_of_1976;.

Chemistry 105 Practice Test: Answer Key

Chem 105 PracticeTest 1Note: There will not be this many questions on your test, I just wanted to give you as much practice as possible. Also, none of these exact questions will be on the test, just similar questions. Also, make sure you can do the homework, as I may have some questions similar to the homework questions. 1. Molecules can be described as a. a mixture of two or more pure substances. b. a mixture of two or more elements that has a specific ratio between components. c. two or more atoms chemically joined together. d. a heterogeneous mixture e. a homogeneous mixture Answer: C 2. Dalton's Atomic Theory states . that all elements have several isotopes. b. that matter is composed of small indestructible particles. c. that the properties of matter are determined by the properties of atoms. d. that energy is neither created nor destroyed during a chemical reaction. e. that an atom is predominantly empty space. Answer: B 3. Which of the following represents a hypothesis? a. Sodium reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. b. Nitrogen gas is a fairly inert substance. c. Nickel has a silvery sheen. d. When a substance combusts, it combines with air. e. When wood burns, heat is given off. Answer: D 4. Which is true of a Scientific Theory (circle all that apply) a. It is an interpretation for an observation b. It is a general explanation for the manifestation and behavior of all nature c. It can be validated or invalidated by experiment and observation d. It describes why things happen Answer: B, C, and D 5. Mass (circle all that apply) a. Is dependent on location (gravity) b. Is the amount of matter in a substance and remains the same regardless of location c. can be measured by using a scale or balance d. is measured in ml Answer: B and C 6. The states of matter are a. Solid and gas b. Liquid and gas . Gas, solid, and liquid d. Gas, air, and vapor Answer: C 7. A liquid (circle all that apply) a. Has a definite volume b. Has particles that are less orderly and can move about freely c. Has particles that are tightly packed d. Has no definite volume or shape e. Answer: A and B 8. Identify dry ice as a solid, liquid, or gas. a. solid b. liquid c. gas d. both solid and liquid Answer: A 9. When a gas is cooled (circle all that apply) a. Its molecules have fewer energetic collisions b. The motion of the gas particles decrease c. The motion of gas particles increase d. Nothing happens to the gas particles Answer: A and B 10. Classify each of the following as a mixture or a pure substance: a. Carbon dioxide _____________________ b. Blood ______________________ c. Helium (He) ______________________ d. Sugar water _______________________ Answer: A-pure substance; B-mixture; C-pure substance; D-mixture 11. Choose the pure substance from the list below. a. sea water b. sugar c. air d. lemonade e. milk Answer: B 12. Choose the heterogeneous mixture from the list below. a. Gatorade b. chlorine gas c. black coffee d. chicken noodle soup e. carbon (graphite) Answer: D 13. Which of the following statements about crystalline and amorphous solids is TRUE? a. A crystalline solid is composed of atoms or molecules arranged with long-range repeating order. b. An example of a crystalline solid is glass. c. An example of an amorphous solid is table salt (NaCl). d. An amorphous solid is composed of atoms or molecules with a majority of its volume empty. e. All of the above statements are TRUE. Answer: A 14. A substance that can't be chemically broken down into simpler substances is considered to be a. a homogeneous mixture. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. compound. e. an electron. Answer: B 15. Two or more substances in variable proportions, where the composition is constant throughout are considered a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. a homogeneous mixture. e. a crystalline solid. Answer: D 16. Which of the following are examples of physical change? a. sugar is dissolved in water. b. coffee is brewed. c. dry ice sublimes. d. ice (solid water) melts. e. All of these are examples of physical change. Answer: E 17. Which of the following are examples of a chemical change? a. coffee brewing b. water boiling c. nails rusting d. alt dissolves in water e. None of the above are chemical changes. Answer: C 18. Which of the following represents a physical property? a. Sodium metal is extremely reactive with chlorine gas. b. Mercury is a silver liquid at room temperature. c. the tendency of aluminum to â€Å"rust† d. the flammability of butane fuel e. the unreactive nature of argon gas Answer: B 19. Define thermal energy. a. Energy associated with the temperature of an object. b. Energy associated with the motion of an object. c. Energy associated with the force of an object. d. Energy associated with the gravity of an object. e. Energy associated with the position of an object. Answer: A 20. Which of the following are examples of intensive properties? a. density b. volume c. mass d. None of the above are examples of intensive properties. e. All of the above are examples of intensive properties. Answer: A 21. If the temperature is 178 °F, what is the temperature in degrees celsius? a. 352 °C b. 451 °C c. 67 °C d. 81. 1 °C e. 378 °C Answer: D 22. If the temperature is 25 °C, what is the temperature in  °F? a. 45 °F b. 298. 15 °F c. 77 °F d. -3. 89 °F Answer: C 23. If the temperature is 25 °C, what is the temperature in K? a. 45 K b. 298 K c. 77 K . -3. 89 K Answer: B 24. Determine the density of an object that has a mass of 149. 8 g and displaces 12 . 1 mL of water when placed in a graduated cylinder. a. 8. 08 g/mL b. 1. 38 g/mL c. 12 . 4 g/mL d. 18. 1 g/mL e. 11. 4 g/mL Answer: C 25. A student performs an experiment to determine the density of a sugar solution. She obtains the following results: 4. 11 g/mL, 4. 81 g/mL, 4. 95 g/mL, 3. 75 g/mL. If the actual value for the density of the sugar solution is 4. 75 g/mL, which statement below best describes her results? a. Her results are precise, but not accurate. b. Her results are accurate, but not precise. . Her results are both precise and accurate d. Her results are neither precise nor accurate. e. It isn't possible to determine with the information given. Answer: D 26. Read the water level with the correct number of significant figures. a. 5 mL b. 5. 3 mL c. 5. 32 mL d. 5. 320 mL e. 5. 3200 mL Answer: B (Note: Remember, your last significant figure is the one that is uncertain. Because there are only whole number marks, the most certain significant figure is the 5, then we estimate where the meniscus of the liquid is between the 5 and the 6. This is why the correct reading is 5. 3, where the 3 is uncertain. If there were marks between the whole numbers, the correct answer would have 3 significant figures, since you could more accurately determine the volume. ) 27. Read the length of the metal bar with the correct number of significant figures. a. 20 cm b. 15 cm c. 15. 0 cm d. 15. 00 cm e. 15. 000 cm Answer: D 28. How many significant figures are in: 1009. 630 mL? a. 1009. 630 ml _____7______ b. 3. 408 x 104 m _____4_______ c. 0. 0005890 g ______4_______ 29. Complete the following calculations and report your answer with the correct number of significant figures: a. (249. 362 + 41)/63. 498 = ____4. 57________ b. 433. 621 + 0. 02 = ____433. 4_________ c. (965. 43 x 3. 911) + 9413. 4136 = ____1. 319 x 104 or 13190_____ 30. What wavelength of light would you report in units of nm, if the light had a wavelength of 7. 60 x 10-10 m? a. 7. 60 ? 10-3 nm b. 7. 60 ? 10-19 nm c. 1. 32 nm d. 0. 760 nm e. 760 nm Answer: D 31. How many cm3 are contained in 3. 77 ? 104 mm3? a. 3. 77 ? 104 cm3 b. 3. 77 ? 101 cm3 c. 3. 77 ? 10-10 cm3 d. 3. 77 ? 1020 cm3 e. 3. 77 ? 106 cm3 f. Answer: B 32. If a room requires 25. 4 square yards of carpeting, what is the area of the floor in units of ft2? (3 ft = 1 yd) a. 76. 2 ft2 b. 8. 47 ft2 c. 282 ft2 d. 229 ft2 e. 68. 6 ft2 Answer: D 33. Convert 15. km to miles. (use conversions in the back of your book. These will be given for the test a. 24. 1 miles b. 9. 32 miles c. 591 miles d. 33. 1 miles e. Answer: B 34. Gas is sold for $1. 399 per liter in Toronto, Canada. Your car needs 12. 00 gallons. How much will your credit card be charged in dollars? ( use conversions in the back of your book. These will be given for the test) a. $16. 79 b. $67. 15 c. $4. 44 d. $63. 54 Answer: D 35. Crude oil is an example of a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. a homogeneous mixture. Answer: C 3 6. NaCl is an example of a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. . a homogeneous mixture. Answer: A 37. A piece of metal ore weighs 8. 25 g. When a student places it into a graduated cylinder containing water, the liquid level rises from 21. 25 mL to 26. 47 mL. What is the density of the ore? a. 0. 312 g/mL b. 0. 633 g/mL c. 1. 58 g/mL d. 3. 21 g/mL Answer: C 38. A mass of mercury occupies 0. 950 L. What volume would an equal mass of ethanol occupy? The density of mercury is and the density of ethanol is 0. 789 g/mL. a. 0. 0553 L b. 0. 0613 L c. 16. 3 L d. 18. 1 L Answer: C 39. Round the following number to four significant figures and express the result in standard exponential notation: 229. 13 a. 0. 2296 ? 103 b. 229. 6 c. 2. 296 ? 10-2 d. 2. 296 ? 102 e. 22. 96 ? 10-1 Answer: D 40. Round off 00907506 to four significant figures. a. 0091 b. 9076 c. 9100 d. 9. 075 ? 105 Answer: D 41. The diameter of an atom is approximately 1 ? 10-10 m. What is the diameter in millimeters? a. 1 ? 10-16 mm b. 1 ? 10-13 mm c. 1 ? 10-7 mm d. 1 ? 10-4 mm Answer: C 42. How many liters of wine can be held in a wine barrel whose capacity is 26. 0 gal? 1 gal = 4 qt = 3. 7854 L. a. 1. 46 ? 10-4 b. 0. 146 c. 98. 4 d. 6. 87 ? 103 e. 6. 87 Answer: C 43. 128) How many liters of air are in a room that measures 10. 0 x 11. 0 ft and has an 8. 0 ft ceiling? 1 in. = 2. 54 cm (exactly); 1 L = 103 cm3. a. 2. 49 ? 104 b. 92. 8 c. 26. 8 d. 2. 68 ? 107 e. 8. 84 ? 105 Answer: A 44. 1) Which of the following is an example of the law of multiple proportions? a. A sample of chlorine is found to contain three times as much Cl-35 as Cl-37. b. Two different compounds formed from carbon and oxygen have the following mass ratios: 1. 33 g O: 1 g C and 2. 66 g O: 1 g C. c. Two different samples of table salt are found to have the same ratio of sodium to chlorine. d. The atomic mass of bromine is found to be 79. 90 amu. e. Nitrogen dioxide always has a mass ratio of 2. 8 g O: 1 g N. Answer: B 45. Identify the element that has an atomic number of 40. a. neon b. calcium c. zirconium d. bromine Answer: C 46. The atomic mass for cadmium is a. 48 b. 112. 41 c. 40. 08 d. 20 Answer: B 47. The mass number is equal to a. the sum of the sum of the electrons and protons. b. the sum of the sum of the neutrons and electrons. c. the sum of the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons. d. the sum of the number of protons and neutrons. Answer: D 48. What element is defined by the following information? p+ = 11n ° = 12 e- = 11 a. sodium b. vanadium c. magnesium d. titanium Answer: A 49. ) What does â€Å"X† represent in the following symbol? X a. silicon b. sulfur c. zinc d. ruthenium e. nickel Answer: A 50. 11) Determine the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the following: X a. p+ = 18n ° = 18e- = 22 b. p+ = 18n ° = 22e- = 18 c. p+ = 22n ° = 18e- = 18 d. p+ = 18n ° = 22e- = 40 e. p+ = 40 n ° = 22e- = 18 Answer: B 51. Identify a cation. a. An atom that has lost an electron. b. An atom that has gained an electron. c. An atom that has lost a proton. d. An atom that has gained a proton. Answer: A 52. What element is defined by the following information? p+ = 17n ° = 20 e- = 17 a. calcium b. rubidium c. hlorine d. neon e. oxygen Answer: C 53. What species is represented by the following information? p+ = 17 n ° = 18 e- = 18 a. Cl b. Cl- c. Ar d. Ar+ e. Kr f. Answer: B 54. Give the number of electrons for carbon-14, with a -2 charge . a. 7 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 Answer: D 55. Predict the charge that an aluminum ion would have. a. 5- b. 1+ c. 1- d. 2+ e. 3+ Answer: E 56. Predict the charge that the ion formed from bromine would have. a. 1- b. 2+ c. 1+ d. 4+ e. 2- f. Answer: A 57. Which of the following elements is NOT a metal? a. Ba b. Mg c. Xe d. Pb e. Ga Answer: C 58. Which of the following elements is a noble gas? a. Ar b. Br c. N d. O e. K Answer: A 59. Which of the following elements is an alkali metal? a. Zn b. Xe c. F d. Li e. Ca Answer: D 60. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Anions are usually larger than their corresponding atom. b. Metals tend to form cations c. Atoms are usually larger than their corresponding cation. d. The halogens tend to form 1+ ions. e. Nonmetals tend to gain electrons. Answer: D 61. Which of the following does NOT describe a nonmetal? a. Tend to gain electrons b. Found in the upper right hand corner of the periodic table. c. Poor conductor of electricity d. Nonmetals are generally unreactive. e. Poor conductor of heat. Answer: D 62. Silver has an atomic mass of 107. 868 amu. The Ag-109 isotope (108. 905 amu) is 48. 16%. What is the amu of the other isotope? a. 106. 905 amu b. 106. 908 amu c. 106. 903 amu d. D) 106. 911 amu Answer: A 63. Which of the following contains the MOST atoms? You shouldn't need to do a calculation here. a. 10. 0 g Ne b. 10. 0 g He c. 10. 0 g Ar d. 10. 0 g Kr e. 10. 0 g Mg Answer: B 64. How many silver atoms are contained in 3. 75 moles of silver? a. 6. 23 ? 1024 silver atoms b. 2. 26 ? 1024 silver atoms c. 1. 61 ? 1023 silver atoms d. 2. 44 ? 1026 silver atoms e. 6. 50 ? 1025 silver atoms Answer: B 65. How many moles of potassium are contained in 449 g of potassium? a. 11. 5 moles b. 17. 6 moles c. 69. 2 moles d. 23. 9 moles e. 41. 5 moles Answer: A 66. What mass, in kg, does 5. 84 moles of titanium (Ti) have? a. 0. 352 kg b. 0. 122 kg c. 0. 820 kg d. 0. 280 kg e. 0. 632 kg Answer: D 67. How many moles of Cs are contained in 595 kg of Cs? a. 2. 23 ? 102 moles Cs b. 4. 48 ? 103 moles Cs c. 7. 91 ? 104 moles Cs d. 1. 26 ? 103 moles Cs e. 5. 39 ? 102 moles Cs Answer: B 68. How many iron atoms are contained in 354 g of iron? a. 2. 62 ? 1025 Fe atoms b. 2. 13 ? 1026 Fe atoms c. 4. 69 ? 1024 Fe atoms d. 3. 82 ? 1024 Fe atoms . 9. 50 ? 1022 Fe atoms Answer: D 69. Calculate the mass, in kg, of 4. 87 x 1025 atoms of Zn. a. 5. 29 kg b. 1. 89 kg c. 8. 09 kg d. 1. 24 kg e. 1. 09 kg Answer: A Match the following. A) Fe B) C C) Mg D) Si E) K 70. magnesium 71. carbon 72. potassium 73. iron 74. silicon Answers: 70) C 71) B 72) E 73) A 74) D 75. Give the name of the element whose symbol is Na. Answer: sodium 76. An atom of 131Xe contains ________ electrons. a. 131 b. 185 c. 77 d. 123 e. 54 Answer: E 77. An ion has 8 protons, 9 neutrons, and 10 electrons. The symbol for the ion is ________. a. 17O2- b. 17O2+ c. 19F+ d. 19F- e. 17Ne2+ Answer: A 78. How many protons does the Br- ion possess? a. 34 b. 36 c. 6 d. 8 e. 35 Answer: E 79. Predict the charge of the most stable ion of potassium. a. 3+ b. 1- c. 2+ d. 2- e. 1+ Answer: E 80. What is the chemical symbol for mercury? a. Ag b. Au c. Hg d. Pb Answer: C 81. Which are isotopes? An atom that has an atomic number of 20 and a mass number of 42 is an isotope of an atom that has a. an atomic number of 21 and a mass number of 42. b. an atomic number of 20 and a mass number of 40. c. 22 neutrons and 20 protons. d. 22 protons and 20 neutrons. Answer: B 82. How many protons (p) and neutrons (n) are in an atom of Sr? a. 38 p, 52 n . 38 p, 90 n c. 52 p, 38 n d. 90 p, 38 n Answer: A 83. The mass number of an atom of 128Xe is ________. a. 54 b. 182 c. 74 d. 128 e. 120 Answer: D 84. What is the identity of element Q if the ion Q2+ contains 10 electrons? a. C b. O c. Ne d. Mg Answer: D 85. In which of the following sets do all species have the same number of electrons? a. F-, Ne, Mg2+ b. Ge, Se2-, Br- c. K+, Rb+, Cs+ d. Br, Br-, Br+ Answer: A 86. Argon belongs to the ________ group of the periodic table. a. alkali metal b. alkaline earth metal c. halogen d. noble gas Answer: D 87. Which of the following elements has chemical properties similar to tellurium? . fluorine b. hydrogen c. nitrogen d. sulfur Answer: D 88. An ionic bond is best described as: a. the sharing of electrons. b. the transfer of electrons from one atom to another. c. the attraction that holds the atoms together in a polyatomic ion. d. the attraction between 2 nonmetal atoms. e. the attraction between 2 metal atoms. Answer: B 89. What is the empirical formula for C4H10O2? a. C2H5O b. CHO c. C2H4O d. CHO2 e. CH2O Answer: A 90. Write a possible molecular formula for C4H4O. a. C8H8O2 b. C12H12O2 c. C2H2O d. C8H8O Answer: A 91. Which of the following is an atomic element? a. Br b. H c. N d. O e. Mg Answer: E 92. Which of the following is a molecular element? a. Kr b. Ag c. S d. Mg e. Ti Answer: C 93. Which of the following is a molecular compound? a. CuCl2 b. KCl c. NaNO3 d. CH3Cl e. RbBr f. Answer: D 94. Which of the following is an ionic compound? a. SCl2 b. Mg3(PO4)2 c. Cl2O d. CH2O e. PF5 Answer: B 95. Write the formula for the compound formed between potassium and sulfur. a. KS b. KS2 c. K2S d. K2SO3 e. K3S2 Answer: C 96. Give the name for SnO. a. tin (I) oxide b. tin (II) oxide c. tin (III) oxide d. tin (IV) oxide Answer: B 97. Write the formula for strontium nitride. a. Sr3N2 b. Sr(NO3)2 c. SrN d. Sr2N3 e. Sr(NO2)2 Answer: A 98. Write the name for Sn(SO4)2. Remember that Sn forms several ions. a. tin (I) sulfite b. tin (IV) sulfate c. tin sulfide d. tin (II) sulfite e. tin (I) sulfate Answer: B 99. Determine the name for CoCl2†¢6H2O. Remember that Co forms several ions. a. cobalt chloride hydrate b. cobalt (I) chloride heptahydrate c. cobalt (II) chloride heptahydrate d. cobalt (II) chloride hexahydrate e. cobalt (I) chloride Answer: D 100. Write the formula for copper (II) sulfate pentahydrate. a. Cu2SO3†¢H5 b. Cu2S†¢H2O c. CuS†¢5H2O d. (CuSO4)5 e. CuSO4†¢5H2O Answer: E 101. Determine the name for H2CO3. a. carbonous acid b. dihydrogen carbonate c. carbonic acid . hydrocarbonic acid e. hydrocarbide acid Answer: C 102. Identify the formula for nitric acid. a. HNO3 b. HNO2 c. HNO d. HNO4 Answer: A 103. Determine the name for P4O10. a. phosphorus (IV) oxide b. diphosphorus pentoxide c. phosphorus oxide d. phosphorus (II) oxide e. tetraphosphorus decoxide Answer: E 104. Calculate the molar mass for Mg(ClO4)2. a. 223. 21 g/mol b. 123. 76 g/mol c. 119. 52 g/mol d. 247. 52 g/mol e. 75. 76 g/mol Answer: A 105. Calculate the molar mass of Al(C2H3O2)3. a. 86. 03 g/mol b. 204. 13 g/mol c. 56. 00 g/mol d. 258. 09 g/mol e. 139. 99 g/mol Answer: B 106. How many millimoles of Ca(NO3)2 contain 4. 8 ? 1022 formula units of Ca(NO3)2? The molar mass of Ca(NO3)2 is 164. 10 g/mol. a. 12. 6 mmol Ca(NO3)2 b. 13. 0 mmol Ca(NO3)2 c. 20. 7 mmol Ca(NO3)2 d. 79. 4 mmol Ca(NO3)2 e. 57. 0 mmol Ca(NO3)2 Answer: D 107. How many C2H4 molecules are contained in 45. 8 mg of C2H4? The molar mass of C2H4 is 28. 05 g/mol. a. 9. 83 ? 1020 C2H4 molecules b. 7. 74 ? 1026 C2H4 molecules c. 2. 71 ? 1020 C2H4 molecules d. 3. 69 ? 1023 C2H4 molecules e. 4. 69 ? 1023 C2H4 molecules Answer: A 108. What is the mass of 9. 44 ? 1024 molecules of NO2? The molar mass of NO2 is 46. 01 g/mol. a. 205 g b. 294 g c. 721 g d. 341 g e. 685 g Answer: C 109. Calculate the mass percent composition of sulfur in Al2(SO4)3. a. 28. 12 % b. 9. 372 % c. 42. 73 % d. 21. 38 % e. 35. 97 % Answer: A 110. How many moles of N2O3 contain 2. 55 ? 1024 oxygen atoms? (change the molecule) a. 1. 41 moles N2O3 b. 4. 23 moles N2O3 c. 12. 7 moles N2O3 d. 7. 87 moles N2O3 e. 2. 82 moles N2O3 Answer: A 111. How many moles of PCl3 contain 3. 68 ? 1025 chlorine atoms? a. 61. 1 moles PCl3 b. 20. 4 moles PCl3 c. 16. 4 moles PCl3 d. 54. 5 moles PCl3 e. 49. 1 moles PCl3 Answer: B 112. How many sodium ions are contained in 99. 6 mg of Na2SO3? The molar mass of Na2SO3 is 126. 05 g/mol. a. 1. 52 ? 1027 sodium ions . 4. 76 ? 1020 sodium ions c. 2. 10 ? 1021 sodium ions d. 1. 05 ? 1021 sodium ions e. 9. 52 ? 1020 sodium ions Answer: E 113. Determine the volume of hexane that contains 5. 33 ? 1022 molecules of hexane. The density of hexane is 0. 6548 g/mL and its molar mass is 86. 17 g/mol. a. 8. 59 mL b. 13. 5 mL c. 7. 40 mL d. 12. 4 mL e. 11. 6 mL Answer: E 114. Determine the molecular formula of a compound that has a molar mass of 92. 0 g/mol and an empirical formula of NO2. a. N2O3 b. N3O6 c. N2O4 d. NO2 e. N2O5 Answer: C 115. Determine the empirical formula for a compound that is 36. 86% N and 63. 14% O by mass. a. NO b. N2O c. NO2 d. N2O3 e. NO3 Answer: D 116. Write a balanced equation to show the reaction of gaseous ethane with gaseous oxygen to form carbon monoxide gas and water vapor. a. 2 C2H6(g) + 7 O2(g) > 4 CO2(g) + 6 H2O(g) b. C2H6(g) + 5 O(g) > 2 CO(g) + 3 H2O(g) c. 2 C2H6(g) + 5 O2(g) > 4 CO(g) + 6 H2O(g) d. C2H6(g) + 7 O(g) > 2 CO2(g) + 3 H2O(g) e. 2 CH3(g) + 5 O(g) > 2 CO(g) + 3 H2O(g) Answer: C 117. Which of the following is one possible form of pentane? a. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 b. CH3CH=CHCH2CH3 c. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 d. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2NH2 e. CH3CH2-O-CH2CH2CH3 Answer: A 118. List the elements in a hydrocarbon Answer: hydrogen and carbon 119. What type of bonding is found in the compound OF2? a. covalent bonding b. hydrogen bonding c. ionic bonding d. metallic bonding Answer: A 120. In which set do all elements tend to form cations in binary ionic compounds? a. K, Ga, O b. Sr, Ni, Hg c. N, P, Bi d. O, Br, I Answer: B 121. Rb2S is named a. rubidium disulfide. b. rubidium sulfide. c. rubidium(II) sulfide. d. rubidium sulfur. Answer: B 122. An aqueous solution of H2S is named a. hydrosulfuric acid. b. hydrosulfurous acid. c. sulfuric acid. d. sulfurous acid. Answer: A 123. What is the molar mass of nitrogen gas? a. 14. 0 g/mol b. 28. 0 g/mol c. 6. 02 ? 1023 g/mol d. 1. 20 ? 023 g/mol Answer: B 124. What mass of carbon dioxide, C O2, contains the same number of molecules as 3. 00 g of trichlorofluoromethane, CCl3F? a. 0. 106 g b. 0. 961 g c. 1. 04 g d. 9. 37 g e. Answer: B 125. Which of the following has the greatest mass? a. 3. 88 ? 1022 molecules of O2 b. 1. 00 g of O2 c. 0. 0312 mol of O2 d. All of the above have the same mass. Answer: A 126. A sample of pure calcium fluoride with a mass of 15. 0 g contains 7. 70 g of calcium. How much calcium is contained in 40. 0 g of calcium fluoride? a. 2. 27 g b. 7. 70 g c. 15. 0 g d. 20. 5 g Answer: D 127. What is the empirical formula of a compound that is 62. % C, 10. 4% H, and 27. 5% O by mass? a. C3HO b. C6HO3 c. C6H12O2 d. C5H10O2 e. C3H6O Answer: E 128. How many oxygen atoms are there in 7. 00 g of sodium dichromate, Na2Cr2O7? a. 0. 187 oxygen atoms b. 2. 30 ? 1021 oxygen atoms c. 1. 60 ? 1022 oxygen atoms d. 1. 13 ? 1023 oxygen atoms Answer: D 129. Methane and oxygen react to form carbon dioxide and water. What mass of water is formed if 0. 80 g of methane reacts with 3. 2 g of oxygen to produce 2. 2 g of carbon dioxide? a. 1. 8 g b. 2. 2 g c. 3. 7 g d. 4. 0 g Answer: A 130. Combustion analysis of 1. 200 g of an unknown compound containing carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen produced 2. 86 g of CO2 and 1. 134 g of H2O. What is the empirical formula of the compound? a. C2H5O b. C2H5O2 c. C2H10O3 d. C3H8O2 Answer: D 131. What is the stoichiometric coefficient for oxygen when the following equation is balanced using the lowest, whole-number coefficients? _____ C2H6O (l) + _____ O2(g) > _____ CO2(g) + _____ H2O(l) a. 9 b. 7 c. 5 d. 3 Answer: D 132. Calcium phosphate reacts with sulfuric acid to form calcium sulfate and phosphoric acid. What is the coefficient for sulfuric acid when the equation is balanced using the lowest, whole-numbered coefficients? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. none of these Answer: C Chemistry 105 Practice Test: Answer Key Chem 105 PracticeTest 1Note: There will not be this many questions on your test, I just wanted to give you as much practice as possible. Also, none of these exact questions will be on the test, just similar questions. Also, make sure you can do the homework, as I may have some questions similar to the homework questions. 1. Molecules can be described as a. a mixture of two or more pure substances. b. a mixture of two or more elements that has a specific ratio between components. c. two or more atoms chemically joined together. d. a heterogeneous mixture e. a homogeneous mixture Answer: C 2. Dalton's Atomic Theory states . that all elements have several isotopes. b. that matter is composed of small indestructible particles. c. that the properties of matter are determined by the properties of atoms. d. that energy is neither created nor destroyed during a chemical reaction. e. that an atom is predominantly empty space. Answer: B 3. Which of the following represents a hypothesis? a. Sodium reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. b. Nitrogen gas is a fairly inert substance. c. Nickel has a silvery sheen. d. When a substance combusts, it combines with air. e. When wood burns, heat is given off. Answer: D 4. Which is true of a Scientific Theory (circle all that apply) a. It is an interpretation for an observation b. It is a general explanation for the manifestation and behavior of all nature c. It can be validated or invalidated by experiment and observation d. It describes why things happen Answer: B, C, and D 5. Mass (circle all that apply) a. Is dependent on location (gravity) b. Is the amount of matter in a substance and remains the same regardless of location c. can be measured by using a scale or balance d. is measured in ml Answer: B and C 6. The states of matter are a. Solid and gas b. Liquid and gas . Gas, solid, and liquid d. Gas, air, and vapor Answer: C 7. A liquid (circle all that apply) a. Has a definite volume b. Has particles that are less orderly and can move about freely c. Has particles that are tightly packed d. Has no definite volume or shape e. Answer: A and B 8. Identify dry ice as a solid, liquid, or gas. a. solid b. liquid c. gas d. both solid and liquid Answer: A 9. When a gas is cooled (circle all that apply) a. Its molecules have fewer energetic collisions b. The motion of the gas particles decrease c. The motion of gas particles increase d. Nothing happens to the gas particles Answer: A and B 10. Classify each of the following as a mixture or a pure substance: a. Carbon dioxide _____________________ b. Blood ______________________ c. Helium (He) ______________________ d. Sugar water _______________________ Answer: A-pure substance; B-mixture; C-pure substance; D-mixture 11. Choose the pure substance from the list below. a. sea water b. sugar c. air d. lemonade e. milk Answer: B 12. Choose the heterogeneous mixture from the list below. a. Gatorade b. chlorine gas c. black coffee d. chicken noodle soup e. carbon (graphite) Answer: D 13. Which of the following statements about crystalline and amorphous solids is TRUE? a. A crystalline solid is composed of atoms or molecules arranged with long-range repeating order. b. An example of a crystalline solid is glass. c. An example of an amorphous solid is table salt (NaCl). d. An amorphous solid is composed of atoms or molecules with a majority of its volume empty. e. All of the above statements are TRUE. Answer: A 14. A substance that can't be chemically broken down into simpler substances is considered to be a. a homogeneous mixture. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. compound. e. an electron. Answer: B 15. Two or more substances in variable proportions, where the composition is constant throughout are considered a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. a homogeneous mixture. e. a crystalline solid. Answer: D 16. Which of the following are examples of physical change? a. sugar is dissolved in water. b. coffee is brewed. c. dry ice sublimes. d. ice (solid water) melts. e. All of these are examples of physical change. Answer: E 17. Which of the following are examples of a chemical change? a. coffee brewing b. water boiling c. nails rusting d. alt dissolves in water e. None of the above are chemical changes. Answer: C 18. Which of the following represents a physical property? a. Sodium metal is extremely reactive with chlorine gas. b. Mercury is a silver liquid at room temperature. c. the tendency of aluminum to â€Å"rust† d. the flammability of butane fuel e. the unreactive nature of argon gas Answer: B 19. Define thermal energy. a. Energy associated with the temperature of an object. b. Energy associated with the motion of an object. c. Energy associated with the force of an object. d. Energy associated with the gravity of an object. e. Energy associated with the position of an object. Answer: A 20. Which of the following are examples of intensive properties? a. density b. volume c. mass d. None of the above are examples of intensive properties. e. All of the above are examples of intensive properties. Answer: A 21. If the temperature is 178 °F, what is the temperature in degrees celsius? a. 352 °C b. 451 °C c. 67 °C d. 81. 1 °C e. 378 °C Answer: D 22. If the temperature is 25 °C, what is the temperature in  °F? a. 45 °F b. 298. 15 °F c. 77 °F d. -3. 89 °F Answer: C 23. If the temperature is 25 °C, what is the temperature in K? a. 45 K b. 298 K c. 77 K . -3. 89 K Answer: B 24. Determine the density of an object that has a mass of 149. 8 g and displaces 12 . 1 mL of water when placed in a graduated cylinder. a. 8. 08 g/mL b. 1. 38 g/mL c. 12 . 4 g/mL d. 18. 1 g/mL e. 11. 4 g/mL Answer: C 25. A student performs an experiment to determine the density of a sugar solution. She obtains the following results: 4. 11 g/mL, 4. 81 g/mL, 4. 95 g/mL, 3. 75 g/mL. If the actual value for the density of the sugar solution is 4. 75 g/mL, which statement below best describes her results? a. Her results are precise, but not accurate. b. Her results are accurate, but not precise. . Her results are both precise and accurate d. Her results are neither precise nor accurate. e. It isn't possible to determine with the information given. Answer: D 26. Read the water level with the correct number of significant figures. a. 5 mL b. 5. 3 mL c. 5. 32 mL d. 5. 320 mL e. 5. 3200 mL Answer: B (Note: Remember, your last significant figure is the one that is uncertain. Because there are only whole number marks, the most certain significant figure is the 5, then we estimate where the meniscus of the liquid is between the 5 and the 6. This is why the correct reading is 5. 3, where the 3 is uncertain. If there were marks between the whole numbers, the correct answer would have 3 significant figures, since you could more accurately determine the volume. ) 27. Read the length of the metal bar with the correct number of significant figures. a. 20 cm b. 15 cm c. 15. 0 cm d. 15. 00 cm e. 15. 000 cm Answer: D 28. How many significant figures are in: 1009. 630 mL? a. 1009. 630 ml _____7______ b. 3. 408 x 104 m _____4_______ c. 0. 0005890 g ______4_______ 29. Complete the following calculations and report your answer with the correct number of significant figures: a. (249. 362 + 41)/63. 498 = ____4. 57________ b. 433. 621 + 0. 02 = ____433. 4_________ c. (965. 43 x 3. 911) + 9413. 4136 = ____1. 319 x 104 or 13190_____ 30. What wavelength of light would you report in units of nm, if the light had a wavelength of 7. 60 x 10-10 m? a. 7. 60 ? 10-3 nm b. 7. 60 ? 10-19 nm c. 1. 32 nm d. 0. 760 nm e. 760 nm Answer: D 31. How many cm3 are contained in 3. 77 ? 104 mm3? a. 3. 77 ? 104 cm3 b. 3. 77 ? 101 cm3 c. 3. 77 ? 10-10 cm3 d. 3. 77 ? 1020 cm3 e. 3. 77 ? 106 cm3 f. Answer: B 32. If a room requires 25. 4 square yards of carpeting, what is the area of the floor in units of ft2? (3 ft = 1 yd) a. 76. 2 ft2 b. 8. 47 ft2 c. 282 ft2 d. 229 ft2 e. 68. 6 ft2 Answer: D 33. Convert 15. km to miles. (use conversions in the back of your book. These will be given for the test a. 24. 1 miles b. 9. 32 miles c. 591 miles d. 33. 1 miles e. Answer: B 34. Gas is sold for $1. 399 per liter in Toronto, Canada. Your car needs 12. 00 gallons. How much will your credit card be charged in dollars? ( use conversions in the back of your book. These will be given for the test) a. $16. 79 b. $67. 15 c. $4. 44 d. $63. 54 Answer: D 35. Crude oil is an example of a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. a homogeneous mixture. Answer: C 3 6. NaCl is an example of a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. . a homogeneous mixture. Answer: A 37. A piece of metal ore weighs 8. 25 g. When a student places it into a graduated cylinder containing water, the liquid level rises from 21. 25 mL to 26. 47 mL. What is the density of the ore? a. 0. 312 g/mL b. 0. 633 g/mL c. 1. 58 g/mL d. 3. 21 g/mL Answer: C 38. A mass of mercury occupies 0. 950 L. What volume would an equal mass of ethanol occupy? The density of mercury is and the density of ethanol is 0. 789 g/mL. a. 0. 0553 L b. 0. 0613 L c. 16. 3 L d. 18. 1 L Answer: C 39. Round the following number to four significant figures and express the result in standard exponential notation: 229. 13 a. 0. 2296 ? 103 b. 229. 6 c. 2. 296 ? 10-2 d. 2. 296 ? 102 e. 22. 96 ? 10-1 Answer: D 40. Round off 00907506 to four significant figures. a. 0091 b. 9076 c. 9100 d. 9. 075 ? 105 Answer: D 41. The diameter of an atom is approximately 1 ? 10-10 m. What is the diameter in millimeters? a. 1 ? 10-16 mm b. 1 ? 10-13 mm c. 1 ? 10-7 mm d. 1 ? 10-4 mm Answer: C 42. How many liters of wine can be held in a wine barrel whose capacity is 26. 0 gal? 1 gal = 4 qt = 3. 7854 L. a. 1. 46 ? 10-4 b. 0. 146 c. 98. 4 d. 6. 87 ? 103 e. 6. 87 Answer: C 43. 128) How many liters of air are in a room that measures 10. 0 x 11. 0 ft and has an 8. 0 ft ceiling? 1 in. = 2. 54 cm (exactly); 1 L = 103 cm3. a. 2. 49 ? 104 b. 92. 8 c. 26. 8 d. 2. 68 ? 107 e. 8. 84 ? 105 Answer: A 44. 1) Which of the following is an example of the law of multiple proportions? a. A sample of chlorine is found to contain three times as much Cl-35 as Cl-37. b. Two different compounds formed from carbon and oxygen have the following mass ratios: 1. 33 g O: 1 g C and 2. 66 g O: 1 g C. c. Two different samples of table salt are found to have the same ratio of sodium to chlorine. d. The atomic mass of bromine is found to be 79. 90 amu. e. Nitrogen dioxide always has a mass ratio of 2. 8 g O: 1 g N. Answer: B 45. Identify the element that has an atomic number of 40. a. neon b. calcium c. zirconium d. bromine Answer: C 46. The atomic mass for cadmium is a. 48 b. 112. 41 c. 40. 08 d. 20 Answer: B 47. The mass number is equal to a. the sum of the sum of the electrons and protons. b. the sum of the sum of the neutrons and electrons. c. the sum of the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons. d. the sum of the number of protons and neutrons. Answer: D 48. What element is defined by the following information? p+ = 11n ° = 12 e- = 11 a. sodium b. vanadium c. magnesium d. titanium Answer: A 49. ) What does â€Å"X† represent in the following symbol? X a. silicon b. sulfur c. zinc d. ruthenium e. nickel Answer: A 50. 11) Determine the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the following: X a. p+ = 18n ° = 18e- = 22 b. p+ = 18n ° = 22e- = 18 c. p+ = 22n ° = 18e- = 18 d. p+ = 18n ° = 22e- = 40 e. p+ = 40 n ° = 22e- = 18 Answer: B 51. Identify a cation. a. An atom that has lost an electron. b. An atom that has gained an electron. c. An atom that has lost a proton. d. An atom that has gained a proton. Answer: A 52. What element is defined by the following information? p+ = 17n ° = 20 e- = 17 a. calcium b. rubidium c. hlorine d. neon e. oxygen Answer: C 53. What species is represented by the following information? p+ = 17 n ° = 18 e- = 18 a. Cl b. Cl- c. Ar d. Ar+ e. Kr f. Answer: B 54. Give the number of electrons for carbon-14, with a -2 charge . a. 7 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 Answer: D 55. Predict the charge that an aluminum ion would have. a. 5- b. 1+ c. 1- d. 2+ e. 3+ Answer: E 56. Predict the charge that the ion formed from bromine would have. a. 1- b. 2+ c. 1+ d. 4+ e. 2- f. Answer: A 57. Which of the following elements is NOT a metal? a. Ba b. Mg c. Xe d. Pb e. Ga Answer: C 58. Which of the following elements is a noble gas? a. Ar b. Br c. N d. O e. K Answer: A 59. Which of the following elements is an alkali metal? a. Zn b. Xe c. F d. Li e. Ca Answer: D 60. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Anions are usually larger than their corresponding atom. b. Metals tend to form cations c. Atoms are usually larger than their corresponding cation. d. The halogens tend to form 1+ ions. e. Nonmetals tend to gain electrons. Answer: D 61. Which of the following does NOT describe a nonmetal? a. Tend to gain electrons b. Found in the upper right hand corner of the periodic table. c. Poor conductor of electricity d. Nonmetals are generally unreactive. e. Poor conductor of heat. Answer: D 62. Silver has an atomic mass of 107. 868 amu. The Ag-109 isotope (108. 905 amu) is 48. 16%. What is the amu of the other isotope? a. 106. 905 amu b. 106. 908 amu c. 106. 903 amu d. D) 106. 911 amu Answer: A 63. Which of the following contains the MOST atoms? You shouldn't need to do a calculation here. a. 10. 0 g Ne b. 10. 0 g He c. 10. 0 g Ar d. 10. 0 g Kr e. 10. 0 g Mg Answer: B 64. How many silver atoms are contained in 3. 75 moles of silver? a. 6. 23 ? 1024 silver atoms b. 2. 26 ? 1024 silver atoms c. 1. 61 ? 1023 silver atoms d. 2. 44 ? 1026 silver atoms e. 6. 50 ? 1025 silver atoms Answer: B 65. How many moles of potassium are contained in 449 g of potassium? a. 11. 5 moles b. 17. 6 moles c. 69. 2 moles d. 23. 9 moles e. 41. 5 moles Answer: A 66. What mass, in kg, does 5. 84 moles of titanium (Ti) have? a. 0. 352 kg b. 0. 122 kg c. 0. 820 kg d. 0. 280 kg e. 0. 632 kg Answer: D 67. How many moles of Cs are contained in 595 kg of Cs? a. 2. 23 ? 102 moles Cs b. 4. 48 ? 103 moles Cs c. 7. 91 ? 104 moles Cs d. 1. 26 ? 103 moles Cs e. 5. 39 ? 102 moles Cs Answer: B 68. How many iron atoms are contained in 354 g of iron? a. 2. 62 ? 1025 Fe atoms b. 2. 13 ? 1026 Fe atoms c. 4. 69 ? 1024 Fe atoms d. 3. 82 ? 1024 Fe atoms . 9. 50 ? 1022 Fe atoms Answer: D 69. Calculate the mass, in kg, of 4. 87 x 1025 atoms of Zn. a. 5. 29 kg b. 1. 89 kg c. 8. 09 kg d. 1. 24 kg e. 1. 09 kg Answer: A Match the following. A) Fe B) C C) Mg D) Si E) K 70. magnesium 71. carbon 72. potassium 73. iron 74. silicon Answers: 70) C 71) B 72) E 73) A 74) D 75. Give the name of the element whose symbol is Na. Answer: sodium 76. An atom of 131Xe contains ________ electrons. a. 131 b. 185 c. 77 d. 123 e. 54 Answer: E 77. An ion has 8 protons, 9 neutrons, and 10 electrons. The symbol for the ion is ________. a. 17O2- b. 17O2+ c. 19F+ d. 19F- e. 17Ne2+ Answer: A 78. How many protons does the Br- ion possess? a. 34 b. 36 c. 6 d. 8 e. 35 Answer: E 79. Predict the charge of the most stable ion of potassium. a. 3+ b. 1- c. 2+ d. 2- e. 1+ Answer: E 80. What is the chemical symbol for mercury? a. Ag b. Au c. Hg d. Pb Answer: C 81. Which are isotopes? An atom that has an atomic number of 20 and a mass number of 42 is an isotope of an atom that has a. an atomic number of 21 and a mass number of 42. b. an atomic number of 20 and a mass number of 40. c. 22 neutrons and 20 protons. d. 22 protons and 20 neutrons. Answer: B 82. How many protons (p) and neutrons (n) are in an atom of Sr? a. 38 p, 52 n . 38 p, 90 n c. 52 p, 38 n d. 90 p, 38 n Answer: A 83. The mass number of an atom of 128Xe is ________. a. 54 b. 182 c. 74 d. 128 e. 120 Answer: D 84. What is the identity of element Q if the ion Q2+ contains 10 electrons? a. C b. O c. Ne d. Mg Answer: D 85. In which of the following sets do all species have the same number of electrons? a. F-, Ne, Mg2+ b. Ge, Se2-, Br- c. K+, Rb+, Cs+ d. Br, Br-, Br+ Answer: A 86. Argon belongs to the ________ group of the periodic table. a. alkali metal b. alkaline earth metal c. halogen d. noble gas Answer: D 87. Which of the following elements has chemical properties similar to tellurium? . fluorine b. hydrogen c. nitrogen d. sulfur Answer: D 88. An ionic bond is best described as: a. the sharing of electrons. b. the transfer of electrons from one atom to another. c. the attraction that holds the atoms together in a polyatomic ion. d. the attraction between 2 nonmetal atoms. e. the attraction between 2 metal atoms. Answer: B 89. What is the empirical formula for C4H10O2? a. C2H5O b. CHO c. C2H4O d. CHO2 e. CH2O Answer: A 90. Write a possible molecular formula for C4H4O. a. C8H8O2 b. C12H12O2 c. C2H2O d. C8H8O Answer: A 91. Which of the following is an atomic element? a. Br b. H c. N d. O e. Mg Answer: E 92. Which of the following is a molecular element? a. Kr b. Ag c. S d. Mg e. Ti Answer: C 93. Which of the following is a molecular compound? a. CuCl2 b. KCl c. NaNO3 d. CH3Cl e. RbBr f. Answer: D 94. Which of the following is an ionic compound? a. SCl2 b. Mg3(PO4)2 c. Cl2O d. CH2O e. PF5 Answer: B 95. Write the formula for the compound formed between potassium and sulfur. a. KS b. KS2 c. K2S d. K2SO3 e. K3S2 Answer: C 96. Give the name for SnO. a. tin (I) oxide b. tin (II) oxide c. tin (III) oxide d. tin (IV) oxide Answer: B 97. Write the formula for strontium nitride. a. Sr3N2 b. Sr(NO3)2 c. SrN d. Sr2N3 e. Sr(NO2)2 Answer: A 98. Write the name for Sn(SO4)2. Remember that Sn forms several ions. a. tin (I) sulfite b. tin (IV) sulfate c. tin sulfide d. tin (II) sulfite e. tin (I) sulfate Answer: B 99. Determine the name for CoCl2†¢6H2O. Remember that Co forms several ions. a. cobalt chloride hydrate b. cobalt (I) chloride heptahydrate c. cobalt (II) chloride heptahydrate d. cobalt (II) chloride hexahydrate e. cobalt (I) chloride Answer: D 100. Write the formula for copper (II) sulfate pentahydrate. a. Cu2SO3†¢H5 b. Cu2S†¢H2O c. CuS†¢5H2O d. (CuSO4)5 e. CuSO4†¢5H2O Answer: E 101. Determine the name for H2CO3. a. carbonous acid b. dihydrogen carbonate c. carbonic acid . hydrocarbonic acid e. hydrocarbide acid Answer: C 102. Identify the formula for nitric acid. a. HNO3 b. HNO2 c. HNO d. HNO4 Answer: A 103. Determine the name for P4O10. a. phosphorus (IV) oxide b. diphosphorus pentoxide c. phosphorus oxide d. phosphorus (II) oxide e. tetraphosphorus decoxide Answer: E 104. Calculate the molar mass for Mg(ClO4)2. a. 223. 21 g/mol b. 123. 76 g/mol c. 119. 52 g/mol d. 247. 52 g/mol e. 75. 76 g/mol Answer: A 105. Calculate the molar mass of Al(C2H3O2)3. a. 86. 03 g/mol b. 204. 13 g/mol c. 56. 00 g/mol d. 258. 09 g/mol e. 139. 99 g/mol Answer: B 106. How many millimoles of Ca(NO3)2 contain 4. 8 ? 1022 formula units of Ca(NO3)2? The molar mass of Ca(NO3)2 is 164. 10 g/mol. a. 12. 6 mmol Ca(NO3)2 b. 13. 0 mmol Ca(NO3)2 c. 20. 7 mmol Ca(NO3)2 d. 79. 4 mmol Ca(NO3)2 e. 57. 0 mmol Ca(NO3)2 Answer: D 107. How many C2H4 molecules are contained in 45. 8 mg of C2H4? The molar mass of C2H4 is 28. 05 g/mol. a. 9. 83 ? 1020 C2H4 molecules b. 7. 74 ? 1026 C2H4 molecules c. 2. 71 ? 1020 C2H4 molecules d. 3. 69 ? 1023 C2H4 molecules e. 4. 69 ? 1023 C2H4 molecules Answer: A 108. What is the mass of 9. 44 ? 1024 molecules of NO2? The molar mass of NO2 is 46. 01 g/mol. a. 205 g b. 294 g c. 721 g d. 341 g e. 685 g Answer: C 109. Calculate the mass percent composition of sulfur in Al2(SO4)3. a. 28. 12 % b. 9. 372 % c. 42. 73 % d. 21. 38 % e. 35. 97 % Answer: A 110. How many moles of N2O3 contain 2. 55 ? 1024 oxygen atoms? (change the molecule) a. 1. 41 moles N2O3 b. 4. 23 moles N2O3 c. 12. 7 moles N2O3 d. 7. 87 moles N2O3 e. 2. 82 moles N2O3 Answer: A 111. How many moles of PCl3 contain 3. 68 ? 1025 chlorine atoms? a. 61. 1 moles PCl3 b. 20. 4 moles PCl3 c. 16. 4 moles PCl3 d. 54. 5 moles PCl3 e. 49. 1 moles PCl3 Answer: B 112. How many sodium ions are contained in 99. 6 mg of Na2SO3? The molar mass of Na2SO3 is 126. 05 g/mol. a. 1. 52 ? 1027 sodium ions . 4. 76 ? 1020 sodium ions c. 2. 10 ? 1021 sodium ions d. 1. 05 ? 1021 sodium ions e. 9. 52 ? 1020 sodium ions Answer: E 113. Determine the volume of hexane that contains 5. 33 ? 1022 molecules of hexane. The density of hexane is 0. 6548 g/mL and its molar mass is 86. 17 g/mol. a. 8. 59 mL b. 13. 5 mL c. 7. 40 mL d. 12. 4 mL e. 11. 6 mL Answer: E 114. Determine the molecular formula of a compound that has a molar mass of 92. 0 g/mol and an empirical formula of NO2. a. N2O3 b. N3O6 c. N2O4 d. NO2 e. N2O5 Answer: C 115. Determine the empirical formula for a compound that is 36. 86% N and 63. 14% O by mass. a. NO b. N2O c. NO2 d. N2O3 e. NO3 Answer: D 116. Write a balanced equation to show the reaction of gaseous ethane with gaseous oxygen to form carbon monoxide gas and water vapor. a. 2 C2H6(g) + 7 O2(g) > 4 CO2(g) + 6 H2O(g) b. C2H6(g) + 5 O(g) > 2 CO(g) + 3 H2O(g) c. 2 C2H6(g) + 5 O2(g) > 4 CO(g) + 6 H2O(g) d. C2H6(g) + 7 O(g) > 2 CO2(g) + 3 H2O(g) e. 2 CH3(g) + 5 O(g) > 2 CO(g) + 3 H2O(g) Answer: C 117. Which of the following is one possible form of pentane? a. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 b. CH3CH=CHCH2CH3 c. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 d. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2NH2 e. CH3CH2-O-CH2CH2CH3 Answer: A 118. List the elements in a hydrocarbon Answer: hydrogen and carbon 119. What type of bonding is found in the compound OF2? a. covalent bonding b. hydrogen bonding c. ionic bonding d. metallic bonding Answer: A 120. In which set do all elements tend to form cations in binary ionic compounds? a. K, Ga, O b. Sr, Ni, Hg c. N, P, Bi d. O, Br, I Answer: B 121. Rb2S is named a. rubidium disulfide. b. rubidium sulfide. c. rubidium(II) sulfide. d. rubidium sulfur. Answer: B 122. An aqueous solution of H2S is named a. hydrosulfuric acid. b. hydrosulfurous acid. c. sulfuric acid. d. sulfurous acid. Answer: A 123. What is the molar mass of nitrogen gas? a. 14. 0 g/mol b. 28. 0 g/mol c. 6. 02 ? 1023 g/mol d. 1. 20 ? 023 g/mol Answer: B 124. What mass of carbon dioxide, C O2, contains the same number of molecules as 3. 00 g of trichlorofluoromethane, CCl3F? a. 0. 106 g b. 0. 961 g c. 1. 04 g d. 9. 37 g e. Answer: B 125. Which of the following has the greatest mass? a. 3. 88 ? 1022 molecules of O2 b. 1. 00 g of O2 c. 0. 0312 mol of O2 d. All of the above have the same mass. Answer: A 126. A sample of pure calcium fluoride with a mass of 15. 0 g contains 7. 70 g of calcium. How much calcium is contained in 40. 0 g of calcium fluoride? a. 2. 27 g b. 7. 70 g c. 15. 0 g d. 20. 5 g Answer: D 127. What is the empirical formula of a compound that is 62. % C, 10. 4% H, and 27. 5% O by mass? a. C3HO b. C6HO3 c. C6H12O2 d. C5H10O2 e. C3H6O Answer: E 128. How many oxygen atoms are there in 7. 00 g of sodium dichromate, Na2Cr2O7? a. 0. 187 oxygen atoms b. 2. 30 ? 1021 oxygen atoms c. 1. 60 ? 1022 oxygen atoms d. 1. 13 ? 1023 oxygen atoms Answer: D 129. Methane and oxygen react to form carbon dioxide and water. What mass of water is formed if 0. 80 g of methane reacts with 3. 2 g of oxygen to produce 2. 2 g of carbon dioxide? a. 1. 8 g b. 2. 2 g c. 3. 7 g d. 4. 0 g Answer: A 130. Combustion analysis of 1. 200 g of an unknown compound containing carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen produced 2. 86 g of CO2 and 1. 134 g of H2O. What is the empirical formula of the compound? a. C2H5O b. C2H5O2 c. C2H10O3 d. C3H8O2 Answer: D 131. What is the stoichiometric coefficient for oxygen when the following equation is balanced using the lowest, whole-number coefficients? _____ C2H6O (l) + _____ O2(g) > _____ CO2(g) + _____ H2O(l) a. 9 b. 7 c. 5 d. 3 Answer: D 132. Calcium phosphate reacts with sulfuric acid to form calcium sulfate and phosphoric acid. What is the coefficient for sulfuric acid when the equation is balanced using the lowest, whole-numbered coefficients? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. none of these Answer: C

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Florida Lovebugs Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1250 words

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